Michael the Restrainer

There is currently a force at work holding back the man of lawlessness from being revealed.  Eventually, this force will cease restraining at the command of Yahweh and the Antichrist will be revealed to us.

[2Th 2:6-9 LSB]  And you know what restrains him [the man of lawlessness] now, so that in his time he will be revealed. 
[7]  For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains [Michael] will do so until he [Michael] is taken out of the way [by Yahweh][8]  And then that lawless one will be revealed—whom the Lord Yeshua WILL SLAY WITH THE BREATH OF HIS MOUTH and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming— (Isa 11:4) [9]  whose coming is in accord with the working of Satan, with all power and signs and false wonders,

Paul reminds the people of Thessalonica that they knew (this was common knowledge to them) who/what this force was.  This force is preventing the revelation the lawless one until Yahweh declares "it's time".

There is spiritual warfare occurring behind the scenes.  Scripture tells us that Michael the archangel is the guardian and protector of Israel.

[Dan 12:1 LITV]  And at that time, Michael shall stand up, the great ruler who stands for the sons of your people. And there shall be a time of distress, such as has not been from the being of a nation until that time. And at that time, your people shall be delivered, everyone that shall be found written in the Book.

Note that Michael "standing up" correlates with the revealing of the man of lawlessness.  The important point is that Michael will take some kind of action, after which the man of lawlessness is revealed and the Great Tribulation begins.

Daniel chapters 10-12 also establish Michael as one who restrains and wars against demonic principalities whose influence manifests in kings and kingdoms that arise on the earth. This is part of Michael’s job description.

After Michael arises, or withdraws/standing aside, the great tribulation period (3.5 years) will begin. It is at this point that the Antichrist will be revealed.

[2Th 2:3-5 LITV]  Do not let anyone deceive you in any way, because that Day WILL NOT COME unless first comes [1] the falling away, and [2] the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition, [4]  the one opposing and exalting himself over everything being called God, or object of worship, so as for him "to sit in the temple of God" as God, setting forth himself, that he is God. (Dan. 11:36; Eze. 28:2) [5]  Do you not remember that I told you these things, I yet being with you?

Currently, Michael is Israel's prince.  In Daniel, the demonic forces had to deal with him, and in the future - so will the Antichrist.  The antichrist will have to go through Michael to get to Israel and that will not happen until Yahweh declares the time.  When the time arrives, Yahweh will signal to Michael to "arise".  At this point, Satan will express his authority through the man of lawlessness.

Revelation 12:7–17 supports viewing Michael as the Restrainer because it links the cessation of Michael’s war against the dragon with the unprecedented persecution of God’s people, which is consistent with 2 Thessalonians 2:6–7 and Daniel 11:45–12:1.

[Rev 12:7-9 LSB]  And there was war in heaven, Michael and his angels waging war with the dragon. The dragon and his angels waged war, [8]  and they were not strong enough, and there was no longer a place found for them in heaven. [9]  And the great dragon was thrown down, the serpent of old who is called the devil and Satan, who deceives the whole world. He was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him.

Satan's wrath begins... great tribulation.

[Rev 12:12 LSB]  “For this reason, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them. Woe to the earth and the sea, because the devil has come down to you, having great wrath, knowing that he has only a short time.”

Satan, through the man of lawlessness, will first go after Israel.  When those plans are thwarted he will turn his attention to the saints (Rev 12:13-17).

Satan will have to wait until God signals the restraining force to arise out of the way before the man of lawlessness can have the opportunity to sit in God’s temple declaring himself to be God. The end-time events will occur according to God’s timing and plan. God is not slow in executing his plan, rather he is patiently waiting because he desires more people to come to repentance.


[2Pe 3:9 LSB]  The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some consider slowness, but is patient toward you, not willing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance.

Extra-Biblical Sources 

There are a few other sources which speak towards Michael being the restrainer.  When Paul mentioned that the Thessalonians knew who/what was restraining, he was likely referring to his previous conversations with them.  However, they may have also known because of Daniel's writings. 

Below are a few extra-Biblical sources for the same sentiment.

Jewish Interpretation of Daniel 12:1
Many rabbinic commentators (including Rashi) understood that Michael "arises" or stands up at a critical moment — implying he had previously been restraining or holding back full evil against Israel. When he steps back or arises in a new way, the final tribulation begins.

1 Enoch (Ethiopic Enoch) – Chapter 20 & 90
Michael is repeatedly called one of the chief archangels and the guardian of Israel. In 1 Enoch 90:22–25, Michael is involved in the final judgment and the restraining of evil forces until the appointed time.

Midrash & Rabbinic Literature
Midrash Rabbah (on Exodus and Daniel) describes Michael as the defender and restrainer of Israel against the accusations of Satan and the nations.  In Pirkei de-Rabbi Eliezer (Chapter 27), Michael is portrayed as the angel who stands guard over Israel and restrains the forces of destruction until the time of redemption.

Talmud & Later Commentaries
In Talmud Bavli, Yoma 77a and other passages, Michael is called the "Prince of Israel" and is seen as the one who restrains judgment or punishment from falling fully upon the Jewish people.

Rashi, on Daniel 12:1, notes that Michael’s arising signals the removal of restraint, allowing the final distress to come.

Dead Sea Scrolls (War Scroll – 1QM)
In the War of the Sons of Light Against the Sons of Darkness, Michael is presented as the chief angelic prince who fights for Israel and restrains the power of Belial (Satan) until the final battle.

Notes

Daniel’s use of the Hebrew term ʿmd comports with the ceasing activity of the restrainer in 2 Thessalonians 2:6–7.

The Greek term parerchomai in Daniel 12:1 of the Septuagint (LXX) means, “to pass by,” which corresponds with the ceasing of restraint in 2 Thessalonians 2:6–7.

See also Colin Nicholl's understanding of the masculine and the neuter in reference to Michael, where in verse 6, it is in the neuter gender to katechon (“what holds him back”), and in verse 7, it is in the masculine gender ho katechōn (“the one who holds him back”). Nicholl believes the best explanation is recognizing the Greek can use the neuter gender to refer to a person while the emphasis is on an exceptional quality of the individual (e.g., 1 Cor 11:5; 1 Cor 1:27–28; Gal 3:22; John 3:6; 17:24; 1 John 5:1–4; Matt 12:6). Thus, the neuter in verse 6 refers to Michael with a focus on his restraining ministry, while the masculine in verse 7 refers to Michael himself.

Catholic Arguments

Catholic Argument: Concerning papal infallibility and supremacy, Jesus gave Peter the “keys of the kingdom” (Matthew 16:18-19). Peter was the rock, and the Popes are his successors with the same authority.

The “rock” is Peter’s confession that Yeshua is the Messiah, not Peter himself. [Mat 16:16 LSB]  And Simon Peter answered and said, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” 
All apostles shared authority. That which the Apostles and the Prophets left behind are the source of authority (Scripture).   

[Eph 2:19-22 LSB]  So then you are no longer strangers and sojourners, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God’s household, [20]  having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Yeshua Himself being the corner stone, [21]  in whom the whole building, being joined together, is growing into a holy sanctuary in the Lord, [22]  in whom you also are being built together into a dwelling of God in the Spirit. There is no biblical evidence that Peter’s supposed authority was passed on to a single bishop of Rome.
Catholic Argument:
There is only one true Church all. Jesus Christ founded one and only one! It is the Catholic Church. The only Church that has never been divided. The only Church that preserves Christ's teachings.

If every Protestant can interpret the Bible on their own, then why do thousands of Protestant denominations all disagree on what the same Bible means? Christ did not leave us with confusion or endless opinions;

You're correct - there is only one true Church. Scripture defines that as the Body of Christ - His Bride. Yes, there may be plenty of catholics included in His Body, but Scripture definitely does not define the Church as catholic. Maybe I missed a passage somewhere?  I'm having a hard time finding "catholic" in my Bible.

Scripture tells us that Yeshua is our teacher... I don't need the catholic church to teach me anything. Don't be mistaken either... having been brought up in the catholic church, I know a thing or two about catholicism and I can assure you - catholicism is not the "true church". Also note that I don't consider myself necessarily a "Protestant" either... I believe non-catholic churches have plenty of issues of their own.

Catholic Argument: He left us with a Church to teach with His authority. He said, “He who hears you hears Me” (Luke 10:16). The truth cannot contradict itself, and only the Catholic Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, has preserved one consistent teaching for 2,000 years.

As far as "one consistent teaching" is concerned... I think you need to study your church doctrinal history a bit.  If you need some help, let me know as I can provide you with a lot doctrinal changes showing anything but consistency.  The only consistent teachings are found in Scripture.

Catholic Argument: Remember: “Wherever the bishop appears, there let the people be; as wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” — Saint Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrnaeans, 107 A.D.

Ignatius wasn't referring to the xatholic church when he wrote that. Our English word "catholic" is a transliteration, not a translation of the greek. He was referring to the Bride of Christ... not today's catholic church. 

When Ignatius wrote that, in 107 AD, there was no "Roman Catholic Church" as a separate entity — Christianity was still one undivided body. Ignatius used the greek word: katholikē descriptively: the Church that is whole/universal, present fully wherever Christ is present.

Catholic Argument:
Regarding the assumption of Mary into Heaven, the argument that we don't see a description of it is a exact word fallacy. Just because it is not explicitly described in scripture doesn't mean it is false.

You're right, Scripture is silent on this issue - which means, we should be silent on this issue.  Why?  Because Scripture is NOT silent about adding to His Word:

[Deu 4:2 LSB] “You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of Yahweh your God which I am commanding you.

[Deu 12:32 LSB] “Whatever I am commanding you, you shall be careful to do; you shall not add to nor take away from it.

[Pro 30:6 LSB] Do not add to His words Lest He reprove you, and you be proved a liar.

This dogma didn't formally exist until 1950 by Pius XII.  The New Testament presents Mary as a faithful and blessed woman (Luke 1:28, 42), but it never gives her a unique, exalted status above other believers. After Acts 1, Mary virtually disappears from the biblical record.

On the other hand, since Scripture is silent on this we should assume that Mary is dead and awaiting the resurrection like all other believers as Scripture does speak clearly on this.

[Heb 9:27 LSB] And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment,

Catholic Argument: Furthermore, we see links in the old testament that would hint at Mary's assumption. Psalm 132:8 says "Arise, O Lord, into thy resting place: thou and the ark of thy sanctification." Since Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant, it would be fitting that she was also risen up into Heaven.

Again, zero Scriptural support.  Nowhere in Scripture is Mary referred to as the Ark of the Covenant.

Psalm 132:8 is referring to the actual Ark of the Covenant.  It is a prayer for God’s presence to dwell permanently among His people in Jerusalem.

The ultimate fulfillment is not Mary, but Yeshua Himself, who is the true presence of God with us (Immanuel).

Catholic Argument: Lastly, while we have plenty of relics, such as bones, for other saints, none were every collected from Mary, suggesting that she didn't physically die on Earth.

Another argument from silence.  "Suggesting"?  That's a strong choice of words.  Just because no bones were collected or venerated does not prove she didn’t die.  There are many reasons why we might not have her relics.  There are also many early saints of which you have no relics. Were they bodily assumed also?

Only Enoch and Elijah are said to have been caught up.  If Mary had been caught up, it would've been mentioned in Scripture.

Catholic Argument: The argument based on 1 Timothy 2:5 that Christ is the only mediator, therefore the intercession of saints is wrong. This is due to a fundamental misunderstanding of the difference between a intercessor and a mediator. The definition of an intercessor is a person that prays for another, or on behalf of another. On the other hand, a mediator is someone who reconciles the separation between two parties.

There's no misunderstanding on definitions.  The dead can't pray/intercede.  Upon death we go to sheol/hades... the unseen, the imperceptible. Is there any activity in hades according to Scripture?

Life? No-- "... the dead are there... in the depths of sheol" (Prov. 9:18).

Prayer? No-- "... let them be silent in sheol" (Psa. 31:17).

Knowledge? Nope-- "... there is no knowledge in sheol..." (Ecc. 9:10).

Anything at all?  No-- "... the dead know nothing" (Ecc. 9:5). 

Catholic Argument: 4 verses before 1 Timothy 2:5 in 1 Timothy 2:1, we can see that Paul says intercession is made for all men. Since the saints are alive in Heaven (John 3:16, ) God will allow them to hear the requests for prayer made to them, not that the saints are omniscient and omnipresent, but that God allows the saints to hear them through his grace.

There's not a single Scripture that says saints are alive in Heaven.  Saints are not alive in Heaven.  They are dead.  There are plenty of Scriptures stating this but only one is needed for now.

[Joh 3:13 LSB] “And no one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven, the Son of Man.

Catholic Argument: Thats why we have the Eucharist! "Do this in remembrance of me."

Sure - that's what we (protestants) do... we remember - it's a memorial.  However, that's not Rome's definition of what you're doing - is it?

The Code of Canon Law, Canon 904, says:
"Remembering that the work of redemption is continually accomplished in the mystery of the Eucharistic sacrifice..."


Scripture tells us that redemption is complete "... it is finished!" ... that is the reason we celebrate this Easter weekend.  There is no need for redemption to be "continually accomplished".

[1Co 11:23-26 LSB]  For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was being betrayed took bread, [24]  and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, “This is My body, which is for you. Do this in remembrance of Me.” [25]  In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me.” [26]  For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the death of the Lord until He comes.

Nowhere in Scripture do we read "do this daily to continually accomplish redemption".

Catholic Argument: Also if we look at the original manuscripts, which, ironically were written in Greek, use literal language. This includes "to nibble on my flesh," etc. Also in John 6, we see how Christ uses literal language to describe communion: "My flesh is true food," and "My blood is true drink." 

In John 6:52–63, Jesus says:

“Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.” (v. 53)

The Jews took this literally and were offended, asking, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” (v. 52)

However, when many of His disciples were shocked and began to leave, Jesus gave this crucial clarification: “It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.” (John 6:63)

He explicitly said that the flesh profits nothing.  He shifted the meaning from physical eating to a spiritual reality.  Apparently, Rome didn't get the memo?

Catholic Argument: Do some more digging. Tradition isn't bad, in fact we are told in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 to hold fast to the traditions passed down, wether by mouth or by letter. He was referring to apostolic teachings. Paul wasn't referring to pagan Greek philosophy mixed in with catholic dogma centuries later. The traditions you're speaking of didn't exist until after the Apostles were long gone. So yeah, catholicism's traditions are bad.

The Greek word is paradosis (παράδοσις), which simply means “that which is handed down” or “passed on.” In this context, it refers to the apostolic teaching — the gospel and instructions Paul and the other apostles delivered to the church.  Not traditions derived by the catholic priests hundreds of years later.

Paul was referring to the apostolic teaching he personally delivered, not to later traditions. The Bereans tested everything by Scripture (Acts 17:11). Once the apostles died and the New Testament was completed, Scripture became the final authority (2 Timothy 3:16-17).

Catholic Argument: Lastly regarding the sinlessness of Mary, again, we don't see that scripture explicitly tell us this, but we see multiple passages hinting at this idea. In Genesis 3:15, where a woman is prophesied to give birth to a son who will strike Satan's head and Satan his heel, which is a prophesy about Christ and his mother, we can see that the mother and the Son is seen to have the same level of enmity between the serpent (which is satan.) This implies that Mary and Christ have the same total opposition towards Satan and his fruits, which mean that since Christ was sinless, Mary was also sinless.

Gen 3:15 is clearly referring to Eve.  That's quite a leap to point this passage at Mary.  Nowhere in Scripture is Mary's sinless nature ever inferred.  What does Scripture plainly state?

(no inference here....)
[Rom 3:23 LSB] for ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,

There's no exception clause for Mary in the verse above.

She herself knew she was a sinner and Scripture points this exact idea out.

Mary offered the purification sacrifice required for women after childbirth (Leviticus 12:6–8).  This was a sin offering.

We don't need to rely on inference.  Scripture tells us that Mary knew she was sinner in need of a Savior.  She wouldn't have referred to Yeshua as her Savior if she had no sin.

[Luk 1:46-47 LSB] And Mary said: “My soul magnifies the Lord, [47] And my spirit has rejoiced in God MY SAVIOR.

Context matters. Gabriel is announcing that Mary has been chosen for a unique and wonderful role — to be the mother of the Messiah. Being “highly favored” refers to her special privilege and calling, not to her personal sinlessness.

Catholic Argument:
Furthermore, in Luke 1:28, we see the Archangel Gabriel greeting Mary. In the original Greek Manuscript, we see the words "Chaire, Kecharitomene/χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη.) The word Kecharitomene comes from "Charito," meaning to be or fill with grace. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle, which points to the fact that Mary was in a grace (meaning having no room for sin) since the beginning, has always been full of grace, and will always continue to be full of grace eternally. Of course, all this is done through God. We do not believe that Mary was sinless on her own accord. Think of it like this: since Christ's sacrifice on the Cross is eternal, God prevented her from falling into original sin, while for us he pulled us out of the pit of original sin. Both of these are by God's grace.

The same root word (charitoō) is used in Ephesians 1:6 to describe all believers: “…to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us (ἐχαρίτωσεν ἡμᾶς) in the Beloved.”

If Kecharitomene proves Mary was sinless from conception, then Ephesians 1:6 would prove that all Christians are sinless from conception — which no one believes... not even catholics. 

Catholicism - Eucharist

Communion/Eucharist/Mass

In the sacrament of the Lord's Supper, Rome tells us that there is a miracle of mass.  This is also referred to as transubstantiation.  This involves a substance being moved, or carried across.

Rome borrowed this concept from Greek philosopher Aristotle.  He distinguished the substance or accidens of an object.  According to him, the substance is the essence of the object and the accidens is the external, perceivable qualities.

If I look at a guitar, I cannot see the essence of it because the molecules and atoms are too small for the naked eye.  I can see the type of woods, the strings, the pearl inlays, etc.

In the eucharist there is bread and wine.  According to Rome, at the prayer of consecration, the substance of the elements is supernaturally transformed into the literal flesh and blood of Yeshua.  This is the miracle of mass.

The bread still looks, feels, smells, and tastes like bread but it is no longer bread.  The substance/essence of it has been miraculously changed to the literal flesh of Yeshua.  Same with the wine changed into His blood.

This is why catholics genuflect, or kneel when they enter the church and sit in the pews.  They do this because on the altar of every Roman catholic church is a holy vessel called the tabernacle.  People kneel, and genuflect in veneration and adoration, because this tabernacle contains the consecrated host - the literal body of Christ.  Catholics are convinced that the real body of Yeshua is literally in the tabernacle box.

The celebration of mass is described in their catechism as "the Holy Sacrifice".  So, when the priest breaks the bread isn't he tearing the body of Yeshua again?  Well?  Isn't he?  Scripture tells us that Christ was sacrificed ONCE for all and that He currently sitting at the right hand of the Father.  He's not pieced out into tiny catholic boxes all over the world.

[Heb 7:26-27 LSB]  For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens; [27]  who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself.

[Heb 10:11-14 LSB]  And every priest stands daily ministering and offering time after time the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins; [12]  but He, having offered one sacrifice for sins for all time, SAT DOWN AT THE RIGHT HAND OF GOD, [13]  waiting from that time UNTIL HIS ENEMIES ARE PUT AS A FOOTSTOOL FOR HIS FEET. [14]  For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified.

In all seriousness... if you were someone reading these blogs on catholicism, who never had any foreknowledge of catholicism, wouldn't you run away from all of this nonsense?  Doesn't it sound like some whacky cult you would hear about in the news?!  

This is what happens when you mix Aristotle's pagan Greek philosophy with Christian doctrine.  This isn't the only example of pagan Greek philosophy deeply embedded into worldviews... especially western theology.  Greek philosophy surrounds us in religion and government alike.  It's everywhere!

Anyway, Rome gets around the passages above by claiming it is somehow a bloodless sacrifice, and that it presents the one sacrifice of Christ.  Nevermind that they expect you to drink His actual blood.  Bloodless?  And if it presents His one sacrifice doesn't that make the whole thing a symbol of His death and resurrection similar to what the Protestants state?  

[Heb 9:11-12 LSB]  But when Christ appeared as a high priest of the good things to come, He entered through the greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this creation, [12]  and not through the blood of goats and calves, but through His own blood, He entered the holy places ONCE FOR ALL, having obtained eternal redemption.

Rome rejects God's Word and insists that redemption remains to be accomplished by the church's liturgy.  Yeshua, on the other hand, said:

[Joh 19:30 LSB]  ...“It is finished!” ...

The Code of Canon Law, Canon 904, says:

"Remembering that the work of redemption is continually accomplished in the mystery of the Eucharistic sacrifice, priests are to celebrate frequently; indeed daily celebration is strongly recommended..."

The Lord's Supper is a memorial... not a sacrifice.  He gave His flesh at the cross after the Lord's Supper.  Did Yeshua give His disciples the "eucharist", His own flesh and blood while He was sitting there, or did He give them bread and wine?  He said "do this in remembrance of Me", not "continually sacrifice my body daily in multiple locations all over the world".

[Luk 22:19 LSB]  And when He had taken some bread and given thanks, He broke it and gave it to them, saying, “This is My body which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of Me.”

[1Co 11:26-28 LSB]
  For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cupyou proclaim the death of the Lord until He comes

[27]  Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord. [28]  But a man must test himself, and in so doing he is to eat of the bread and drink of the cup.

Catholicism's mass fits Paul's description of an unworthy manner. 

Catholicism - Purgatory

Purgatory

If a person dies in mortal sin, he goes to hell.

If the person dies with any sin, with any imperfection or blemish on his soul, he cannot be admitted into heaven but must first go through the purging fires of purgatory, where his impurities are cleansed away until such time as righteousness is truly inherent in him.  Failure to accept the doctrine of purgatory brings automatic excommunication from the Roman Catholic Church.

One might spend five minutes in purgatory and another may be there five thousand years.  It all depends on how many merits one has when they arrive in purgatory.  


Rome decided that it had authority to award merits to those who lacked merits in order to shorten their time in purgatory.  These merits come from what they refer to as 
supererogation.

These are works that are more meritorious than God requires.  These works are performed by the saints, and the excess merits go into the 
treasury of merits.  This is like a "merit bank" that Rome can make withdrawals from when it sees fit.  This allows them to give an indulgence to a needy person in purgatory.

Protestants also have a 
treasury of merit... it goes by a different name though - Yeshua.  It is an infinite source and is inexhaustible.

Indulgences

An 
indulgence is a transfer of merit.  You cannot receive a transfer of merit except by imputation.  According to Rome, one needs enough "merits" in order to be accepted into Heaven.  Not enough merits?  You go to purgatory until you have enough merits.

Early in the 16th century, pope Leo X offered indulgences to those giving alms towards rebuilding St. Peter's Basilica.  He made it clear to state that the church 
was not selling indulgences as a fundraiser.  They claimed this almsgiving was part of their works of satisfaction.  In other words, nobody was to give alms for any reason apart from a broken and contrite heart because their sin.  So, even though it's related to their penance, they still receive special indulgences for doing so.

Of course, it didn't take long for someone to begin selling indulgences.  A German Dominican priest did just that.

In Spain the annual papal Bull of the Crusade had to be purchased by everyone of seven years and older at least once each year. No one could be buried without the current bull in the coffin. Upon purchase of the bull, the pope immediately granted indulgences and absolution from all sins except heresy and the vow of chastity.

All of this called attention to the entire scam from Rome and it mushroomed into a large controversy for Rome.

Recognizing this, Rome's "official" stance is that nobody can pay to have their loved ones relieved of purgatory.  
Growing up, I personally knew those who did exactly that - they paid the church for purgatorial relief of their loved ones.  So Rome can make any statement they want, or call it whatever they want, but money was being exchanged for this purpose not that long ago.

Vatican II declares:

“The Church. commands that the usage of indulgences . . . should be kept . . . and it condemns with anathema those who say that indulgences are useless or that the Church does not have the power to grant them . . . [for] the task of winning salvation.”

While these sales for salvation may not currently be as widespread in the United States it is still occurring in Roman catholic countries.

Rome cannot dispense so easily with the gross deceit that they milked the faithful of their money and robbed them of salvation in the process. The sale of salvation had deceived millions for centuries by the time of the Reformation. Were there any refunds given by the Church?  Of course not.

Invincible ignorance
 can also earn one indulgences.  Invincible ignorance is a type of ignorance that cannot be overcome which in turn provides an excuse.

Paul tells us that men are without excuse:

[Rom 1:20 LSB]  For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, both His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.

When one stands before God on Judgment day you won't be able to plead ignorance.  You may plead ignorance but it will be vincible ignorance which will render it inexcusable.

Rome did this for Protestants that grew up in Protestant communities and had never been exposed to the teaching and truth of Roman catholicism. Meaning, they might have become Roman catholic if only they had heard about it. Since they were not exposed to Rome's "truth" they could be awarded indulgence through invincible ignorance. If you were one of those who knew about catholicism's truths, and turned your nose up at it, you could not be awarded - you have no hope of salvation.

According to Rome, anyone outside of the Roman catholic church was also outside the Body of Christ.  Vatican II somewhat changed this hard line stance from heretics to separated brethren.  (How kind of them!)

Here is Vatican II’s further explanation of this doctrine: "The doctrine of purgatory clearly demonstrates that even when the guilt of sin has been taken away, punishment for it or the consequences of it may remain to be expiated or cleansed. . . . [I]n purgatory the souls of those who died in the charity of God and truly repentant but who had not made satisfaction with adequate penance for their sins and omissions are cleansed after death with punishments designed to purge away their debt." What is adequate penance? No one knows. Rome has never defined it. Where does the Bible say that punishment purges from sin? It doesn’t.
Yes - all of this is still being dictated today.  All you have to do is look up Rome's statements on purgatory and indulgences in their 1995 catechism and Vatican II.

What does Scripture Say?

The above is so outlandish and ridiculous that I can't hardly even believe that man can come up with such evilness. Rome stands in direct conflict with Scripture.

If Christ’s one sacrifice has already perfected and sanctified believers "for all time", there is no remaining purification or temporal punishment needed after death. The work is finished and complete.

[Heb 9:11-12 LSB]  But when Christ appeared as a high priest of the good things to come, He entered through the greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this creation, [12]  and not through the blood of goats and calves, but through His own blood, He entered the holy places once for all, having obtained eternal redemption. [Heb 10:10 LSB]  By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. [Heb 10:14 LSB]  For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified.

[Heb 10:18 LSB]  Now where there is forgiveness of these things, there is no longer any offering for sin.

Forgiveness and cleansing are total and immediate upon faith and confession — there is no partial forgiveness or lingering debt of temporal punishment.

[1Jn 1:6-9 LSB]  If we say that we have fellowship with Him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not do the truth; [7]  but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Yeshua His Son cleanses us from ALL sin[8]  If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. [9]  If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from ALL unrighteousness.

[Col 2:13-14 LSB]  And you being dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive with Him, having graciously forgiven us all our transgressions. [14]  Having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us which was hostile to us, He also has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.

There is NO condemnation for those who are in Christ. If believers are justified and at peace with God, there is no remaining punishment or purification required after death.

[Rom 5:1 LSB]  Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ,

[Rom 8:1 LSB]  Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.
There is no scriptural basis for temporal punishment after forgiveness, a "purgatorial fire", or the church’s authority to grant indulgences to reduce it. Christ’s one sacrifice fully paid for all sin — guilt and punishment — leaving no remaining debt to be satisfied. Believers are fully forgiven, cleansed, and perfected in Christ at the moment of faith. 

Catholicism - Mariology

Mary - Mariology

The Roman catholic view of Mary, mother of Yeshua, has been an area of conflict even within the Roman catholic church.  Most of Rome's definitions for Mary didn't come around until 1854 and then again 1950.  However, she's been a preoccupation with Rome for much longer.

Manifestations of the "Mary cultus" are easy to find within the catholic church... schools and churches named after her, paintings, apparitions, music (Ave Maria and Hail Mary for example), shrines, etc..  At the Vatican itself is a huge fresco of the Madonna, highly exalted, with Yeshua and the Father seated on either side of her.

I mentioned in another post that it was Pius IX who promulgated the doctrine of the immaculate conception.  Celebrations in her honor are held regularly within the church.  Make no mistake, she is a major figure in the faith of Roman catholicism.

"Hail Mary, full of grace" is echoed repeatedly as an aspect of Rome's veneration for Mary.  The "hail Mary" is at the heart of the rosary.  It's traditional wording is as follows:

"Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with thee; blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus.  Holy Mary, mother of God, pray for us sinners, now and at the hour of our death, Amen."

The first part of the above is taken from a combination of two passages:

[Luk 1:28 LSB]  And coming in, he said to her [Mary], “Greetings, favored one! The Lord is with you.”

[Luk 1:42 LSB]  And she [Elizabeth] cried out with a loud voice and said, “Blessed are you [Mary] among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb!

There's no argument from me on the first part.  However, "Holy Mary, mother of God, pray for us sinners, now and at the hour of our death" presents a major problem for me.

All Christians are set apart and holy in the same sense that Mary is holy.  This does not indicate that we are to worship another human though.  

What about "mother of God"?  She is Yeshua's earthly mother.

The council of Ephesus gave her the Greek title of Theotokos which literally means "God-bearer" or "the one who gives birth to God". Taken less literally it is usually rendered as "mother of God".

At Ephesus it meant exactly what I stated... she gave birth to Yeshua in His human form/nature with no attributes of deity attached to it.  She was simply the mother of the One who was God incarnate.  The one who gives birth to the One who is God.  As long as we stick to the original intent and proper definitions, as I just outlined, we're still ok, right?

What about the next part "pray for us sinners, now and at the hour of our death"?  Here, I have problem attributing intercessory work for Mary.  There is ONE Mediator between God and man and that is Yeshua. 

[1Ti 2:5 LSB]  For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Yeshua,

[Rom 8:26 LSB]  And in the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness, for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words;

Let's go back to Pius IX who promulgated the doctrine of the immaculate conception.  Most would think this has to do with the conception of Yeshua, right?  Wrong.

The doctrine of the immaculate conception is dealing with 
Mary's own conception.  It is the belief that Mary was not "infected" with original sin at her conception so she lived a sinless life.

Theoretically, according to this belief, Mary had no need for a Redeemer and she, herself, could have been our champion of redemption to some degree.  Mary is known within the catholic church our "
Co-Redemptrix" as in - she participated in the redemptive process.  This hasn't been "officially sanctioned" in Rome, but it is a wide held belief within their church.

We already know that Mary didn't believe this of herself:

[Luk 1:46-47 LSB]
  And Mary said: “My soul magnifies the Lord, 
[47]  And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.

She knew that she was a sinner in need of a Savior.

[Rom 3:23 LSB]
  for ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,

Mary offered the purification sacrifice required for women after childbirth (Leviticus 12:6–8). This was a sin offering.

[Luk 2:22-24 LSB]  And when the days for their cleansing according to the Law of Moses were fulfilled, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord [23]  (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “EVERY firstborn MALE THAT OPENS THE WOMB SHALL BE CALLED HOLY TO THE LORD”), [24]  and to offer a sacrifice according to what was said in the Law of the Lord, “A PAIR OF TURTLEDOVES OR TWO YOUNG PIGEONS.”

So where did this belief come from?  More below, but first:

Thomas Aquinas, Rome's supreme theologian, brought this passage (above) to Rome's attention sparking embarrassment on their part.  How did Rome respond?

First, Rome noted that Thomas was speaking before the doctrine had been officially defined.  They claimed that Thomas was not infallible and if he had seen how they had defined this doctrine, he would have surely agreed with them on the basis of a 
fide implicitum - implicit faith in whatever the church declares.

Then they suggested that Thomas may have been wrong.  Roman exegetes pointed out that 
Savior doesn't always mean one who saves from sin.  Their claim is that salvation can be understood in a much broader sense, that a person can be saved from other things, as an experience of benefits from the hands of God.  Indeed, Mary did receive benefits from God - He blessed her with blessings no other human has received in giving birth to Yeshua.

In 1943, Pius XII declared:
"Venerable Brethren, may the Virgin Mother of God hear the prayers of Our paternal heart — which are yours also — and obtain for all a true love of the Church, she whose sinless soul was filled with the divine spirit of Jesus Christ above all other created souls, who “in the name of the whole human race” gave her consent “for a spiritual marriage between the Son of God and human nature.”

May she, then, the most holy Mother of all the members of Christ, to whose Immaculate Heart We have trustfully consecrated all mankind, and who now reigns in heaven with her Son, her body and soul refulgent with heavenly glory — may she never cease to beg from Him that copious streams of grace may flow from its exalted Head into all the members of the Mystical Body."

This is the key passage in which Pius XII strongly encourages devotion and veneration to Mary’s Immaculate Heart as a means of obtaining graces for the church. It gets even worse: “It was she, the second Eve, who, free from all sin, original or personal, and always more intimately united with her Son, offered Him on Golgotha to the Eternal Father together with the holocaust of His blood, for all the children of Adam, sin-stained by that unhappy fall; and thus she, who was the Mother of our Head according to the flesh, became by a new title of motherhood the spiritual Mother of all His members.”

Rome may play this off as a bad choice of words but it's pretty clear what Pius XII was declaring.  Not only was it Mary who approved of Yeshua's sacrifice but she was also mother of the catholic church.  I thought Yeshua alone was the head of the Church? 

Mary is also the second Eve, paralleling the comparison of Yeshua to Adam.

[Rom 5:18-19 LSB]  So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. [19]  For as through the one man’s [Adam] disobedience the many were appointed sinners, even so through the obedience of the One [Yeshua] the many will be appointed righteous.

So, just as through one woman came sin, so through another - the second Eve - came redemption.  That's what Pius XII is saying. 

Pius XII added:

"She it was through who her powerful prayers obtained that the Spirit of our Divine Redeemer, already given on the cross, should be bestowed, accompanied by miraculous gifts, on the newly founded Church at Pentecost."

Do I really need to ask Who was responsible for outpouring of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost?  It wasn't Mary's powerful prayers.

In 1950, Pius XII defined the doctrine of the bodily assumption of Mary into Heaven.  She was taken to Heaven bodily and participates fully in the resurrection of the body that we are all looking forward to.  In 1954 he instituted the feast "Queenship of Mary" establishing Mary as the queen of Heaven ruling alongside her son, Yeshua.

There is no Biblical basis for the assumption of Mary.  
There is no verse in Scripture that says Mary was assumed bodily into heaven. Scripture records assumptions for Enoch (Genesis 5:24) and Elijah (2 Kings 2:11), but never for Mary.  Such a major event would almost certainly have been recorded, especially since the assumption is considered a dogma necessary for salvation in Catholic teaching.

Pius XII's statements just go on and on praising Mary's contribution as Co-Redemptrix.   He also compares her to the woman of Revelation 12.  If you've read my eschatology posts we know who the woman of Revelation 12 is... it's not Mary.  He also draws parallels with Abraham as the father of our faith - Mary being the mother of our faith.  

Not to mention Mary's fiat - her command to allow redemption.  I can't cut and paste them all here in this post.  The point is that Rome elevates Mary to the supernatural unnecessarily.  This is a short, but clear, portrait of Roman catholic veneration of Mary to an un-Scriptural level. 

In contemporary catholicism there are two Mariological parties the maximalists and the minimalists. The disagreements between the two had a significant bearing on Vatican II. John XXIII didn't want to define doctrine so this issue was kind of swept under the rug.

The basic disagreement was found in that the maximalists wanted explicit emphasis on Mary's cooperation, via her fiat (command) and the offering of her Son, as absolutely necessary for redemption making her Co-Redemptrix. Without her fiat, there would be no redemption.

The minimalists did not want to view her as Co-Redemptrix but rather the supreme ecclesiastical model of Christian faith.  Of which, I have no problem with at all.  She IS a supreme model of faith in my book!  That's as far as I'll go with the catholic minimalists though.  They still believe in her immaculate conception, bodily assumption, and coronation.  They're still out of line Scripturally.

The real question is:  Has the catholic church created an idol out of Mary?  To worship any human, other than Yeshua, is idolatry.  Officially, Rome does not "sanction" any worship of Mary.  Rome insists that Mary is given dulia, not latria.  This is definition between worship and service that they came up with during the Reformation to justify bowing down and praying in front of statues.  Mary is given dulia - she is venerated, but not worshipped.

I'm pretty sure that I know plenty of catholics that worship Mary regardless of the loopholes created at the vatican.  They believe they're doing exactly what the church calls them to do.  Where do they still get these ideas?  Scroll through the catechism and look at the statements made concerning Mary.

Yeshua, Himself, corrected excessive focus on Mary:

[Luk 11:27-28 LSB]
  Now it happened that while Yeshua was saying these things, one of the women in the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed.” [
28]  But He said, “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”

Mary was a highly favored and blessed woman (Luke 1:28, 42), but she was still a sinner who needed a Savior. Scripture presents her as an example of faith and obedience, not as a co-redeemer, mediator, or object of veneration. All honor, mediation, and intercession belong to Christ alone.

Catholicism - Imputation

Imputation

When Paul explains the doctrine of justification, he cites the example of the patriarch Abraham.  He writes:

"For what does the Scripture say? ‘Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness’" (Rom. 4:3, citing Gen. 15:6). 

In other words, Abraham had faith, and therefore God justified him.  Abraham was still a sinner.  The rest of the history of the life of Abraham reveals that he did not always obey God.  Nevertheless, God counted him righteous because he believed in the promise God had made to him.

This is an example of imputation, which involves transferring something legally to someone’s account, to reckon something to be there. So, Paul speaks of God counting Abraham as righteous or reckoning him as righteous, even though, in and of himself, Abraham was not yet righteous. He did not have righteousness inhering in him.

[Rom 4:5-6 LSB]  But to the one who does not work, but believes upon Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness
[6]  just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God counts righteousness apart from works:

The Roman Catholic idea is that grace is infused into the soul of a person at baptism, making the person inherently righteous, so that God therefore judges him to be righteous.

Luther’s famous Latin formula simul justus et peccatorSimul is the word from which we get the English simultaneous; it means "at the same time". Justus is the Latin word for "just" or "righteous".  Et simply means "and".  Peccator means "sinner".  So, with this formula— "at the same time just and sinner" - Luther was saying that in our justification, we are at the same time righteous and sinful.

In and of ourselves, under God’s scrutiny, we still have sin. But by God’s imputation of the righteousness of Yeshua Christ to our accounts, we are considered just.

Will I be judged according to MY righteousness?  Or, will I be judged according to Yeshua's righteousness imputed onto me?  Yeah... thankfully, the latter!

[2Co 5:21 LSB]
  He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

The good news is simply this: I can be reconciled to God. I can be justified, not on the basis of what I do, but on the basis of what has been accomplished for me by Christ.  Our sin is imputed to Yeshua and His righteousness is imputed to us.

[Rom 5:18-19 LSB]  So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. [19]  For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were appointed sinners, even so through the obedience of the One [Yeshua] the many will be appointed righteous.

Rome teaches that a sinner can receive indulgences through the transfer of merit from the treasury of merit, but this transfer cannot be accomplished except by imputation.

Justification is a legal declaration, not an internal process:

[Rom 4:5-6 LSB]
  But to the one who does not work, but believes upon Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,

It's not something attainable through any action of your own, it is a free gift:
[1Co 1:30 LSB]  But by His doing you are in Christ Yeshua, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption

[Php 3:8-11 LSB]  More than that, I count all things to be loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Yeshua my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them but rubbish so that I may gain Christ [9]  and be found in Himnot having a righteousness of my own which is from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God upon faith[10]  that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, [11]  in order that I may attain to the resurrection from the dead. 

Catholicism - Scriptural Authority

Scripture and Authority

Sola Scriptura is one thing I stand on firmly.  Meaning, Scripture is the sole  authority on all issues. <-- emphasis on the period.

[2Ti 3:16 LSB]  All Scripture is God-breathed and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness, [17]  so that the man of God may be equipped, having been thoroughly equipped for EVERY good work.

Trent affirmed that the truth of God is contained both in the written documents that make up the canon and in the unwritten traditions. This raises the issue of the dual-source theory of revelation. Are there two sources of revelation—Scripture and tradition—or is there only one source—Scripture?

Scripture is the final judge and standard:

[Isa 8:20 LSB]  To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, it is because they have no dawn.

I believe the truth of God can be found in a sermon or in a lecture, but not that it finds its origin there. So, the truth of God is found in Scripture and in tradition, but that tradition is not a source of revelation.  In other words, tradition must be examined in light of Scripture - never vice versa, and tradition should never solely dictate doctrinal beliefs apart from the Truth found in Scripture.

In response to the Protestant claim of private interpretation, Rome declared at the Fourth Session of Trent:

 “Furthermore, in order to restrain petulant spirits, [the council] decrees, that no one, relying on his own skill, shall,—in matters of faith, and of morals pertaining to the edification of Christian doctrine,—wresting the sacred Scripture to his own senses, presume to interpret the said sacred Scripture contrary to that sense which holy mother Church,—whose it is to judge of the true sense and interpretation of the holy Scriptures,—hath held and doth hold.”

Which leads me to one of my favorite passages in all of Scripture:

[Act 17:11 LSB]  Now these were more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica, for they received the word with great eagernessexamining the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so.

Jesus and the Apostles constantly appealed to Scripture as the final authority.  
Jesus repeatedly said:
"It is written…" (Matthew 4:4, 7, 10 — during the temptation)

"Have you not read…?" (Matthew 12:3, 5; 19:4; 21:16, 42)

"The Scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:35)

Paul, Peter, and the other apostles constantly quoted Scripture to prove their teaching and never appealed to an unwritten tradition as equal in authority. We're also instructed to not add to or subtract from the Word of God: [Deu 4:2 LSB]  “You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of Yahweh your God which I am commanding you. [Pro 30:5-6 LSB]  EVERY word of God is tested; He is a shield to those who take refuge in Him. [6]  DO NOT ADD to His words Lest He reprove you, and you be proved a liar. [Rev 22:18-19 LSB]  I bear witness to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book. [19]  And if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book.

This is where Catholics are doomed before they even get started.  In other words, "WE - the Catholic church will tell you what the Scriptures mean.  Don't even bother reading it on your own - you will obviously screw it up!".  Have you ever wondered why all the Latin in their services?  Who speaks Latin these days?!  It's not for you to know...

Human traditions can nullify the Word of God:

[Matthew 15:3, 6, 9] (Jesus rebuking the Pharisees) “Why do you break the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition?… So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word of God… in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.”

This is one of the strongest warnings in the Bible against elevating tradition to the level of Scripture. 

Catholicism - Papal Infallibility

Infallibility of the Pope

Kings and emperors often claimed to be gods, but their luster faded as they fought among themselves and their subjects began to demand more freedom. What was needed was an infallible representation of deity on earth to whom the civil rulers could look to settle their disputes.  The popes gleefully began to fill that need, and by the thirteenth century they had established themselves as the supreme authority all across Europe.

On July 18, 1870, as part of the ecumenical council known as Vatican I, the Roman catholic church formally defined the doctrine of papal infallibility. It was declared to be de fide ("of the faith"), that is, an official doctrine of the church, the denial of which would constitute heresy.  The idea of papal authority was already tacitly assumed within the church prior to this.

The office of "pope" perhaps began with Clement, bishop of Rome, and his first letter to the Corinthians.  Peter and Paul both preached in Rome and Clement 
was the fourth such bishop, following Peter, Linus, and Anacletus.  Over the years, Rome became the center of ruling on disagreements within the Church (I'm not referring to the catholic church).

As time passed, the popes began to assert a claim of universal jurisdiction over all the churches. This claim was especially resented in the eastern areas of the empire.  Finally, in 1054, a group of papal representatives traveled to Constantinople to insist that Michael Cerularius, the patriarch of Constantinople, recognize the church in Rome as the mother church.  He refused, sparking the Great Schism, the division of the Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches, a breach that has never been healed.

In June 1846, Giovanni Maria Mastai-Ferretti was elected as Pope Pius IX, beginning the longest papacy ever, thirty-two years.  Pius is the one who really first pushed his power to the limit.  He declared the immaculate conception of Mary (the teaching that Mary had no original sin) and declared it a de fide doctrine.

In Vatican I the council asserted that Peter’s primacy has been passed on in a perpetual succession, and this belief is essential:

"If anyone says that it is not by the institution of Christ the lord himself (that is to say, by divine law) that blessed Peter should have perpetual successors in the primacy over the whole church; or that the Roman pontiff is not the successor of blessed Peter in this primacy: let him be anathema".

They claim infallibility because of Peter, yet don't acknowledge Peter's own fallibility!  He made serious errors and was corrected publicly:

[Gal 2:11-14 LSB]  But when Cephas [Peter] came to Antioch, I [Paul] opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned[12]  For prior to the coming of certain men from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles, but when they came, he began to shrink back and separate himself, fearing the party of the circumcision. [13]  And the rest of the Jews joined him in hypocrisy, with the result that even Barnabas was carried away by their hypocrisy. [14]  But when I saw that they were not straightforward about the truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas before everyone, “If you, being a Jew, live like the Gentiles and not like the Jews, how is it that you compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?

Peter was also corrected by Yeshua:

[Mat 16:22-23 LSB]  And Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, “God forbid it, Lord! This shall never happen to You.” [23]  But He turned and said to Peter, “Get behind Me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to Me; for you are not setting your mind on God’s interests, but man’s.”

Peter was never promised infallibility and was obviously just like us!  All Apostles were fallible... none are infallible but our Heavenly Father and Yeshua.

[1Co 3:21 LSB]  So then let no one boast in men. For all things belong to you,

[Mat 23:8-10 LSB]  “But do not be called Rabbi [or "pope" or "bishop" or "cardinal"]for ONE is your Teacher, and you are all brothers. [9]  “And do not call anyone on earth your father; for ONE is your Father, He who is in heaven. [10]  “Do not be called instructors; for ONE is your InstructorTHAT IS, Christ.

This papal authority is not merely teaching authority, it is a governmental authority. Thus, the pope has jurisdiction over the discipline and government of the whole church. This is what Roman Catholics call the primacy of jurisdiction.

Papal infallibility is restricted to those utterances of the pope on faith or morals that are given ex cathedra, that is, when he is giving a decision on behalf of the whole church.  This infallibility comes through the Divine assistance promised to the pope in Peter.  In other words, he can be infallible when speaking on matters of faith and morals through divine assistance.

Vatican II came along and not only reaffirmed papal infallibility but also added the bishops as authoritative as the apostles of Yeshua were.  These bishops receive a special outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon them, and they passed on this spiritual gift to their helpers by the imposition of hands, and it has been transmitted down to us in Episcopal consecration.  The council proclaimed:

"Although the individual bishops do not enjoy the prerogative of infallibility, they nevertheless proclaim Christ’s doctrine infallibly whenever, even though dispersed through the world, but still maintaining the bond of communion among themselves and with the successor of Peter, and authentically teaching matters of faith and morals, they are in agreement on one position as definitively to be held."

Vatican I referred to the pope as the head of the body of Christ or the head of the church.  But if Christ is the Head of the church, how can the pope be the head of the church—is not the pope usurping the position that is given to Christ alone? This is why Vatican II spoke of the pope as the shepherd of the flock or the vicar of Christ, or Christ’s head on earth.

Is the pope infallible?  If someone feels the need to discuss further I have a list of "infallible" decrees that a pope has made over the centuries and am able to show you just how "infallible" they really are.  The papal office and all of it's lieutenants are nothing more than modern day Pharisees and Sadducees:

[Mat 23:33 LSB]  “You serpents, you brood of vipers, how will you escape the sentence of hell?

The only infallibility to ever exist in the form of Man is - Yeshua.  He alone is the Head of His Church.  We should receive His Word alone - the Holy Scriptures - as the ONLY infallible communication apart from His Holy Spirit - Yeshua is our 
parakletos.

[1Jn 2:1 LSB]  
My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate 
[parakletos] with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; 

Catholicism - Canon of Scripture

Canon of Scripture

Deuterocanonical books represent a portion of the apocryphal books of the intertestamental period, the centuries between the close of the Old Testament canon and the opening of the New Testament canon.

The historical evidence is overwhelming that the Jewish canon did not include these intertestamental books.

If ten books were placed in front of you and you were directed to separate the books into two piles, fallible and infallible, you would likely not get it exactly right.  Why?  Because we are fallible.  If we were infallible, we would get it right every time.

None of us are infallible but Yeshua.

However, Rome claims infallibility for its historical selection and collection of the books of Scripture.  Which of course, is impossible.  Rome is no more infallible than any of us.  So, the historical question of whether the Jewish canon contained certain books is ultimately irrelevant to Rome.

Yeshua and the New Testament writers quoted the Old Testament hundreds of times.  They quoted from every section of the Hebrew canon (Law, Prophets, and Writings).  However, not once did Yeshua, Paul, Peter, James, or any New Testament writer quote from Tobit, Judith, Wisdom, Sirach, Baruch, or 1–2 Maccabees as authoritative Scripture.  This silence is significant, especially since they quoted from the Hebrew canon extensively.

[Luk 24:44 LSB]  Now He [Yeshua] said to them, “These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that ALL THINGS which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.”

Yeshua speaks of the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, who perished between the altar and the sanctuary. This spans from the first book (Genesis) to the last book (2 Chronicles) in the Hebrew order — again showing He recognized the Hebrew canon, which excludes the Deuterocanonical books.
[Mat 23:35 LSB]  so that upon you may fall the guilt of all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar.
The Jewish people (to whom the Old Testament was given — Romans 3:2) never accepted the Deuterocanonical books as inspired Scripture.  The Jewish canon was fixed well before the time of Christ and did not include these books.  Even Jerome (the translator of the Latin Vulgate) strongly argued against including the Apocrypha as canonical Scripture.
The catholic church does not have the authority to add books to the canon that were never recognized by the Jewish people or quoted by Jesus and the apostles. The canon is determined by the inherent inspiration of the books themselves, not by later church councils.


Catholicism - Sacraments & Penance

Justification through Sacraments

The grace that is received through infusion (mentioned in the baptism section) is by no means immutable. When Roman Catholics speak of their sacramental theology, they use quantitative terms with respect to grace, saying that there can be an increase or a diminution of it.

Grace only comes by faith.  Salvation is a free gift that only comes by faith alone:

[Eph 2:8-9 LSB]  For by grace you have been saved through faith, and this not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; [9]  not of works, so that no one may boast.

In other words, a baptized person can lose some of his infused grace. In fact, it may be lost entirely, removing the person from a state of justification and putting him or her under the threat of damnation.

This loss of saving grace takes place when the person commits a particular type of sin—a mortal sin.

Roman Catholic theology distinguishes venial sins and mortal sins, with mortal sins being more egregious.  Mortal sin is so named because it is serious enough to cause the death of the justifying grace that was infused to a person at baptism.

Scripturally, ALL sin is mortal sin in that the penalty is death.

[Rom 6:23 LSB]
  For the wages of sin is death, but the gracious gift of God is eternal life in Christ Yeshua our Lord.

This has remained a constant since the first sin of Adam and Eve.

[Gen 2:17b LSB]  ... for in the day that you eat from it you will surely die.”

[Eze 18:4b LSB]  ... The soul who sins will die.

This means that even the smallest sin is an act of rebellion against God’s sovereign rule and therefore deserving of death.  While every sin is mortal in the sense that it deserves death, no sin is mortal in the sense that it destroys the saving grace that a Christian receives upon his or her justification.

[Psa 130:3 LSB]  If You Yah, should keep iniquities, O Adonai, who could stand?

If we have to stand before God and face His perfect justice and perfect judgment of our performance, none of us would be able to pass His review.  This is the pressing question of justification - how can an unjust person ever be justified in the presence of a righteous and holy God?

Catholicism has a way to correct mortal sins.  Justification can be restored via a sacrament.

Sacraments

The sacrament of penance, which the Roman Catholic Church in the sixteenth century defined as "a second plank" of justification for those who have made shipwreck of their souls, that is, those who have committed mortal sins and lost the grace of justification.

Adding penance turns Grace into works:

[Rom 11:6 LSB]  But if it is by grace, it is no longer of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace.

Justification cannot be lost for those who truly follow Yeshua:

[Eph 1:13 LSB]  In Him, you also, after listening to the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation—having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise,

[Heb 10:10-11 LSB]  By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Yeshua Christ ONCE for all[11]  And every priest stands daily ministering and offering time after time the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins;

[Heb 10:14 LSB]  For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified.

There's a danger in trusting of rituals instead of Christ:

[Gal 5:2-5 LSB]  Behold I, Paul, say to you that if you receive circumcision, Christ will be of no benefit to you. [3]  And I testify again to every man who receives circumcision, that he is under obligation to keep the whole Law. [4]  You have been severed from Christ, you who are being justified by law; you have fallen from grace! [5]  For we through the Spirit, by faith, are eagerly waiting for the hope of righteousness.

Confession, of course, was followed by priestly absolution, whereby the priest would say to the penitent person, "Te absolvo", or, "I absolve you".

If you're trusting in a priest to forgive your sin, or even believing that he has authority to do so, you're in trouble:

[Mar 2:5-7 LSB]  And Yeshua seeing their faith *said to the paralytic, “Child, your sins are forgiven.” [6]  But some of the scribes were sitting there and reasoning in their hearts, [7]  “Why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming; who can forgive sins but God alone?

Nowhere in the New Testament are believers commanded to confess their sins privately to a priest or ordained minister in order to receive forgiveness.

Instead, we are repeatedly told to confess sins directly to God:

[1Jn 1:9 LSB]  If we confess our sins, He [Yahweh] is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

[Psa 32:5 LSB]  I acknowledged my sin to You [Yahweh], and my iniquity I did not cover up; I said, “I will confess my transgressions to Yahweh;” and You [Yahweh] forgave the iniquity of my sin. Selah.

[Psa 51:4 LSB]  Against You, You only [Yahweh], I have sinned and done what is evil in Your sight, So that You are justified when You speak And pure when You judge.

Confession of sin to others is not necessarily a bad thing.  It's a great way to be held accountable and to request prayer from others:

[Jas 5:16 LSB]  Therefore, confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another so that you may be healed [G2390 - ἰάομαι]. The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much.

James doesn't say "so that you may be absolved of your sin".  What does this verse mean then?  Go back to verse 13 and read through the context.

It's the Te absolvo that I have a problem with.  NO MAN has the ability to forgive sin no matter how many robes, rosaries, crowns, or titles they wear.

There is only one Mediator between God and man.  You don't need a pope or a priest:

[1Ti 2:5 LSB]  For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Yeshua,

We ARE priests!  Not catholic priests, but ROYAL priests!

[1Pe 2:9 LSB]  But you are A CHOSEN FAMILY, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR God’s OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;

[Rev 1:6 LSB]  and He has made us to be a kingdom, priests to His God and Father—to Him be the glory and the might forever and ever. Amen.

[Rev 5:10 LSB]  “And You made them to be a kingdom and priests to our God, and they will reign upon the earth.”

We have direct access to the Throne through Yeshua:

[Heb 4:16 LSB]  Therefore let us draw near with confidence to the throne of grace, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need.

[Heb 10:19-22 LSB]  Therefore, brothers, since we have confidence to enter the holy places by the blood of Yeshua, [20]  by a new and living way which He inaugurated for us through the veil, that is, His flesh, [21]  and since we have a great priest over the house of God, [22]  let us draw near with a sincere heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water.
Believers are invited to come directly to God through Christ’s blood — not through a priestly system of confession and absolution.
Which brings us to the next step in the sacrament of penance. In order to be restored to a state of grace, the repentant sinner has to perform works of satisfaction.

Rome says that justification requires faith plus works, grace plus merit, Christ plus inherent righteousness.

Scripture says that adding all of the above undermines the Gospel:

[Gal 2:20-21 LSB]  “I have been crucified with Christ, and it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me. And the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself up for me. [21]  “I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Lawthen Christ died needlessly.”

Rome teaches that works of satisfaction produce merit, but it makes a sharp distinction between kinds of merit. Condign merit is so meritorious it demands a reward. God would be unjust if He did not reward works that were condignly meritorious.

However, the merit that is acquired through works of satisfaction in the sacrament of penance do not rise to the level of condign merit; these works produce congruous merit. This is real merit, but it is dependent on previous grace.  Is anyone as confused as I am by this point?  I don't remember reading about ANY of this in Scripture... do you?

So, long story short (too late?), if a person goes through the sacrament of penance, and does the works of satisfaction prescribed by the priest, it is congruous (or fitting) for God to restore that person to a state of justification.

Mankind should never be taught that any work they do can add in any way to the satisfaction for our sin that was accomplished by Christ ALONE.  Nevertheless, Rome continues to teach that works are involved in justification.

Yeshua's sacrifice was complete and sufficient:

[Heb 9:12 LSB]  and not through the blood of goats and calves, but through His own blood, He entered the holy places once for all, having obtained eternal redemption.

[Heb 10:18 LSB]  Now where there is forgiveness of these things, there is no longer any offering for sin.

If Christ’s one sacrifice perfectly and eternally paid for sin, then no additional works of satisfaction are needed from us. Adding them implies Christ’s work was incomplete. Salvation and forgiveness are free gifts which can come from Yahweh through Yeshua. Nobody can earn either by any type of work. [Rom 4:4-5 LSB]  Now to the one who works, his wage is not counted according to grace, but according to what is due. [5]  But to the one who does not work, but believes upon Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,