Glen's Guitar Build: November 2017

Whence Hell? - Part 13

Full context:

Rev 1:18 I am He that lives, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell [G86 - hades] and of death.

I've already covered these keys in part in Whence Hell? - Part 11 if you'd like to review it.

Here we see that these "gates of hades" are locked and Jesus has the "keys".

In other words, it is possible, through Jesus to GET OUT of hades. Does Christendom claim there is an escape from hell? No.

Did you also notice that in this fourth occurrence Jesus connects something else to hades?

He states that He has to keys to hades "...AND death".

Notice that Jesus does not state that He has the "keys to hades and the DEAD".

That would be redundant, for hades IS the state of the dead.

Rather, Jesus has the keys to "hades AND [the conjunction 'and' signifies something else; something additional] DEATH."

Death is a process, a means, and a completed act.

I want to go to the Disciples 7th occasion of the word hades, where we have two Scriptures showing the difference between death and hades.

We'll tie this 4th occasion of Jesus to the 7th occasion of the Apostle John.
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hades - Disciples, Seventh Occasion

[7]  "Death and hell [hades/unseen] delivered up the dead" (Rev 20:13)

Next verse:

"Death and hell [hades/unseen] were cast into Lake of Fire" (Rev 20:14)

Again, we see "death and hell/hades" used together, just as Jesus used in Rev 1:18.

Why is this?

First, we see the the dead are delivered out of hades and then death and hades were both cast into the Lake of Fire... "the dead" are not yet cast.

If hades is the state or realm of the dead, why is this word linked with "death."

Notice this verse:

Psa 55:15 Let death seize upon them, and let them go down quick into hell [sheol]: for wickedness is in their dwellings, and among them.

Are not "death" that seizes them, and "sheol/hades" where they go down to, one and the same?

No, they are not.

Death seizes upon them, and then because of this death they have something else happen to them:

... they "go down quickly to sheol".

In other words, death is the "act of, or process of - dying" which in turn, delivers one to the "state of the dead" which is sheol/hades, where there is no longer any consciousness, pain, joy, or "any thing" (Ecc 9:5).

Seeing that "death seizes" upon them, they are not yet dead, but the act of death is seizing upon them, that is, it is the cause of their dying until they are actually in the state of being dead.

"Death" is what causes them to ultimately become dead, hence they then "go down quick into hades", which is now the state of their caused death - they are in fact now dead.

This is precisely what God told Adam would happen if he ate the forbidden fruit:

CLV Gen 2:17  Yet from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, you are not to be eating from it, for in the day you eat from it, to die shall you be dying.

Here is what our dictionaries tell us:

death, n. [1] the act of dying; the termination of life. [2] the state of being dead. [3] the cause of dying" ( American Heritage College Dictionary).

Why does it seem like I'm stating the obvious?

Because this is important to consider.

The word death, as defined above is inclusive of, and denotes an [1] ACT, [2] STATE, and [3] CAUSE.

It can be confusing if we do not keep this in mind when dealing with the abolition of ALL aspects of "death" which Scripture says will happen one day.

So when God tells us that "the last enemy to be destroyed is DEATH" (1 Cor 15:26), it must include every and all aspects of what death really is... this will also include the second death!

Death will no longer be the cause of anyone going through death in the act of dying, neither will there be any more dead people in the final state of death.

But will Christians accept the abolition (or destruction) of the ACT of death, the CAUSE of death, and the STATE of death, as representing what Jesus Christ will, literally and spiritually "destroy"?

No, of course not. How could they then continue hanging on to their hatred towards others with their pagan belief of torture in hell for all eternity for those nasty, heathen, unbelieving sinners?

Death itself will be destroyed, or as the CLV renders it: "the last enemy being abolished: death".

(Side note: It is technically more accurate to "abolish" something that is inanimate rather than to "destroy" it as the King James translates it. "abolish" is exactly how the Greek renders it - [G2673 - katargeo, abolish]).

So we have the act, the state, and the cause, all being part of the definition of "death."

All three must be abolished or there will yet remain some form of death which would then continue to be an eternal "enemy" in God's creation.

The Lake of Fire/second death is how God deals with the sins of humanity.

Jesus died for the sins of ALL humanity:

1 Jn 2:2 And He [Jesus] is the propitiation [G2434 - hilasmos, atonement, an expiator] for our sins: and NOT for ours only, but ALSO for the sins of the whole world.

After Jesus has died for the sins of the world, the world continues to sin. Surely we can see from the Scriptures that God wants to abolish ALL forms of sin...

Rom 6:23 for the wages of the sin IS death...

If Jesus died to save sinners, is He going to save only some sinners?

His chosen Elect only?

By saving only a few chosen elect sinners, does that make Jesus literally, truly, and actually - "The Saviour OF THE WORLD" (1 Jn 4:14)?

God the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ commissioned Jesus "TO BE the Saviour of the world".

1 Jn 4:14 And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son TO BE the Saviour of the world.

Will Jesus be justified by His Father if He saves only a FEW?

Will Jesus have accomplished the task that His Father sent Him to accomplish?

Rev 20:12  And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God: and the books were opened, and another book was opened which is the Book of Life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their WORKS.

Rev 20:13-14 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell [G86 - hades] delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged EVERY MAN according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.

Notice again, the dead have been delivered from death and hades and "stand before God".

This is the resurrection from the dead.

For this is exactly what resurrection means (anastasis in Greek means, "to stand up again" See Strong's G386 translated "resurrection").

It is in resurrection that "the dead... stand", that the dead are "delivered up" before God.

And yes, since we know Revelation is a book of Spiritual symbols, we would be correct in stating that it is "the SPIRITUALLY dead" who are standing before God.

Aspects of this Judgment:

[1]  the dead, small and great stand [resurrected] before God

[2] they are judged according to the books, according to their works

[3]  the sea [the sea of wicked humanity] give up its [spiritually] dead

[4] this includes "every man" [Greek: each one, or every one, or every person]

[5]  death [the cause] and hell [hades - the realm] are cast into the Lake of Fire

[6]  and those "not found in the Book of Life were cast into the Lake of Fire"

[7] this "Lake of Fire IS the second death". Christ's final act will be to destroy ALL death, every aspect of death (including sin), and yes! Including the second death!

Again...

Act 17:31 Because He hath appointed a day, in the which He will judge THE WORLD in righteousness by that Man [Jesus] whom He hath ordained; whereof He HAS GIVEN assurance unto ALL MEN, in that He [The Father] has raised Him [Jesus] from the dead.

Jesus has the keys... despite what Christendom says, hades is NOT permanent, endless, or eternal. ALL will be resurrected from hades:

1 Cor 15:22-23 For as in Adam ALL die, even so in Christ shall ALL be made alive. BUT EVERY man in his own order:

Just as Jesus departed from hades... so shall EVERY man, woman, and child also depart one day before hades is permanently abolished...

... for Jesus has already been "made alive" and in so doing has conquered BOTH death and hades for us.

Jesus is the only One who could possibly possess those keys!

Jesus is the only One who can open the gates of hades!

Some of these excerpts are from my personal notes copied from 30+ years of studying... some of these notes are direct copies of various sources - I do not claim to have authored every word of this... it's just a mass collection I've tucked away over the years for my own personal studies... I didn't consider a bibliography at the time I directly copied small excerpts from various authors. Also, any emphasis (underlines, bold text, all CAPS, etc.) noted above was only meant to capture my personal attention as I studied...

Whence Hell? - Part 12

Full context:

Luk 16:22-24 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried; And in hell [G86 - hades] he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and sees Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.  And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.

First, note that this is Jesus teaching another of His parables.

We've covered parables in Whence Hell? - Part 2 so please go back and review the discussion on "parables" if necessary.

Here's a problem for those that believe that Jesus is recounting a literal event:

Ecc 9:10 Whatsoever your hand finds to do, do it with your might [while you live]; for there is NO work [H4639 - activity, good or bad], NOR device [H2808 - intelligence, reason], NOR knowledge [H1847 - awares], NOR wisdom, in the grave [H7585 - sheol], whither you go.

If any of this parable were literal, it would be a direct contradiction to Scripture!

Let me point out one other interesting fact that seems to be entirely overlooked (conveniently?) by Christian theologians when discussing where the dead go.

In Gen 15:15 we have The Lord God speaking to Abraham and God tells Abraham this:

"And you [Abraham] shall go to your fathers in peace; you shall be buried in a good old age."

Which then does indeed happen:

Gen 25:8 Then Abraham gave up the ghost, and died in a good old age, an old man, and full of years; and was gathered to his people."

Nobody questions that Abraham was a righteous and obedient man of faith.

But what about his "father" and "his people"?

What kind of people where they?

They were God-rejecting IDOLATERS:

Jos 24:2  And Joshua said unto all the people, Thus says the LORD God of Israel, Your fathers dwelt on the other side of the flood in old time, even Terah, the father of Abraham, and the father of Nachor: and THEY SERVED OTHER GODS.

You cannot worship other gods and die in an idolatrous condition and still be in the good graces of God.  Those sins must, and will be judged.

Yet, we are told that God promised Abraham that he would go to the same place, and "be gathered to his people" where his idolatrous father and people went when they died.

They all went to the same place of sheol which is the state of the DEAD, the "unseen", the "imperceptible" where there is no consciousness and where "the dead know not ANYTHING" (Ecc 9:5)?

Conversely, as Christendom teaches - they went to hell.

Abraham was a Godly man of faith, but his fathers and his people weren't.

So Christendom - let me ask you a question:

Why would Abraham, the father of our faith, also go to hell? Scripture just said that Abraham would be "gathered to his people" and "his fathers".

Not only that, but God tells us that Abraham would die...

"... in a good old age, an old man, full of years and go to his fathers IN PEACE and be gathered to his people."

IN PEACE - From the Hebrew H7965, "shalom, safe, well, happy, friendly, welfare, health, prosperity, peace" ( Strong's Hebrew Dictionary).

If this "peace" was something that Abraham was to experience AFTER his death, how would Abraham, existing with all of "his people" and his "fathers" who are being tortured by the flames of the Christian hell of eternal fire, be "in peace"?

Would you be "in peace" while existing with your father and grand-parents and great grand-parents, and all of your people being tortured un-mercilessly in Christendom's hell?

Are we callous to such a scene of unimaginable cruelty and torture?

Would we not consider someone to be mentally and/or spiritually sick and deranged if he could be "in peace" viewing, and existing in such a horrific scene of eternal human carnage, especially seeing his own family unmercifully tortured?

I am told by the perpetrators of these vile doctrines, these "destructive heresies", that God's "spiritually anointed ministers" of the Gospel with many years of experience under their belts, many Bible college degrees (pridefully framed and displayed behind their desks on the wall), hold all Scriptural knowledge and wisdom...

... and woe unto any that challenge "God's anointed".

Pfft...

Mat 11:25-26 At that time Jesus answering said, 'I do confess to Thee, Father, Lord of the heavens and of the earth, that You have hidden these things from wise and understanding ones, and have revealed them to babes. Yes, Father, because so it was good pleasure before Thee.

2 Cor 11:14-15 And NO MARVEL; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light.  Therefore it is no great thing if HIS ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.

The ONLY occurrence throughout the entirety of Scripture where consciousness is attributed to hades is found here - in Jesus' parable... NO parable is literal in any sense or form.

It is symbolic of a higher message!
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Theologians, clergymen, and Christians by the hundreds of millions pretend to not see that Lazarus and the Rich man is clearly the final part of a five-part parable.

Mat 13:34 And He [Jesus] spoke this parable [one continuing parable consisting of five different examples] unto them.

Jesus always and only spoke to the multitudes in public, in PARABLES:

Mat 13:34 ALL these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in PARABLES; and without a parable spake He NOT unto them:

Once again, Jesus speaks in parable...

Luk 15:3  And He spoke this parable unto them...

[1]  "what man of you..." (Luk 15:4-7) - this is the first part of "this parable".

[2] "Either what woman..." (Luk 15:8-10) - this is the second part of "this parable".

[3]  "And He said, a certain man..." (Luk 15:11-32) - this is the third part of "this parable".

[4]  "There was a certain rich man..." (Luk 16:1-13) - this is the fourth part of "this parable".

[5]  "There was a certain rich man..." (Luk 16:19-31) - and this is the final part of "this parable".

It is so clear that this five-part parable is all related to one another by the very first words of each presentation, and the content of each picture, that it defies human comprehension to believe that even one theologian could, or even would argue that the first four examples are parables, but the fifth example is NOT.

The lost sheep, the lost coin, the lost son, the unjust steward, and Lazarus and the rich man are five parts of one complete parable.

What is the reason for this parable?

Luk 15:1-3 Now all the tax collectors and the sinners were coming near Him to listen to Him [Jesus].

Both the Pharisees and the scribes [Jewish religious leaders] began to grumble, saying, "This Man [Jesus] receives sinners and eats with them."  So He [Jesus] told them this parable, saying...

Two verses will give you a clue as to what this five-part parable is all about:

Luk 16:25 But Abraham said, Son, remember that you in your lifetime received thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and you are tormented.

Then Jesus sums up this parable with:

... If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though One rose from the dead. (Luk 16:31)

This parable is no different than the sum of all Scripture!

YLT Psa 119:160 The SUM OF THY WORD is Truth, and to the age is EVERY judgment of Thy Righteousness!

I'm going to go into detail on this parable of Lazarus and the Rich Man in a separate blog later, but for now I'll only tell you that this parable from Jesus...

... has ABSOLUTELY NOTHING to do with Christendom's hell.

I'll get to that blog soon...

Some of these excerpts are from my personal notes copied from 30+ years of studying... some of these notes are direct copies of various sources - I do not claim to have authored every word of this... it's just a mass collection I've tucked away over the years for my own personal studies... I didn't consider a bibliography at the time I directly copied small excerpts from various authors. Also, any emphasis (underlines, bold text, all CAPS, etc.) noted above was only meant to capture my personal attention as I studied...

Whence Hell? - Part 11

Act 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just AND unjust.

There is a difference between hades and its "gates".

As we've already discussed, the members of Christ's Church will experience death, but the good news is that the gates of hades will not "prevail" against them in this death state.

A gate can be closed and a gate can be opened. Jesus alone holds the keys to that gate!

Once it is opened, it no longer prevails.

Another aspect of this statement in Mat 16:18 is that never through the ages would Christ's Church completely die out for any period of time.

Jesus likened hades to a holding cell with gates. As long as the gates are closed and locked, no one can escape hades or death.

Jesus assures us that the gates holding the members of His Church in hades shall not "prevail".

Jesus will prevail, not the locked gates.

Jesus will unlock the gates when He gathers His Elect at His Second Coming, and receive them into His Kingdom. We shall be changed and receive Spiritual bodies:

1 Cor 15:44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body.

The rest of the dead are resurrected to enter Judgment (at the conclusion of the Millennial Kingdom) and their SECOND death.

A "gate" is, "A structure which can be swung, drawn or lowered to block an entrance or passageway" (American Heritage College Dictionary).

I think that we can all agree that this figurative, symbolic "gate" of hades is not there to keep people OUT, but rather to keep people IN, in the same way that prison doors are there to keep people in, rather than to keep people out.

To "prevail" means, "To be greater in strength or influence; triumph" ( American Heritage College Dictionary).

So when we put the two ideas together we find that although hades is the temporary abode of all Christ's dead saints and unbelievers alike, the figurative gates of this realm of death will not prevail or triumph over them.

It is temporary, not eternal.

If it were eternal, why a "gate", or better yet - why bother with keys?

Not to mention, that ALL of the above certainly clashes with Christendom's hell doctrine... it's a direct contradiction.

Whence Hell? - Part 10

In each blog, I often reference many different topics that I've already covered (or will soon cover), and maybe you've missed. Please review my blogs to read more...

CLICK HERE! for an index to previous blogs.
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hades - Jesus First Occasion

Below is the first occasion of Jesus mentioning hades...

[1]  "Capernaum... brought down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Mat 11:23)

... same occasion as recorded by Luke:

"Capernaum... thrust down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Luk 10:15)

Full context:

Mat 11:20-24 Then began He [Jesus] to upbraid the cities wherein most of His mighty works were done, because they repented not: [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] For if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you.

And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell [G86 - hades]: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day.  But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.

And full context of Luke:

Luk 10:13-15  [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes.  But it shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the judgment, than for you.  And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted to heaven, shalt be thrust down to hell [G86 - hades].

The problems associated with trying to force this declaration of Jesus regarding Capernaum into the idea that Capernaum would be cast into the pagan hell of the ancient Greeks (and modern-day Christendom) to be tortured for all eternity are many.

I'm going to get to what Jesus is Truly speaking soon, but first... some thoughts on questions you should be asking yourself concerning these few short passages.

What is Jesus trying to tell us?

I guarantee you, Jesus is not just giving us a short history lesson... He's teaching us a far more valuable lesson.
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Thoughts to Ponder

Note that Jesus speaks not only of Capernaum, but also Chorazin, and Bethsaida, Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom.

What did Jesus say regarding these cities?

[1] Jesus first pronounces a "woe" on Chorazin and Bethsaida because they saw Jesus' mighty works but they didn't repent.

[2] He then states that if the same works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, "they would have repented long ago".

Why would they have repented long ago?

Chorazin and Bethsaida saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.

Capernaum saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.

Why would Tyre and Sidon have repented?

Were all the people of Tyre and Sidon and even Sodom, just inherently better and more tender-hearted people that they would have, on their own, repented after witnessing such mighty works by Jesus?

Was the entire population of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum so evil and hard-hearted that the mighty works of Jesus did not effect them at all?

Are we to assume that 100 percent of all the men, women, and children of Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom would be fully capable and willing to repent in the presence of Jesus' mighty works, but that 100 percent of the men, women, and children of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum are totally incapable and unwilling to repent in the presence of these mighty works?

Don't let any suggest that Jesus was not speaking of and including women and children and infants in His statements.

Notice that Jesus brings Sodom into this picture, and we are well aware of the facts surrounding ALL men, ALL women, ALL children, and ALL infants that were destroyed in Sodom and Gomorrah, AND all the cities of the plain.

There is only one Scriptural way that any city, family, or individual is able to come to Jesus Christ in repentance:

"the goodness of God LEADS YOU to repentance" (Rom 2:4).

Are we so totally blind to the Word of God as to believe that Tyre and Sidon could have repented on their own free will?

Repentance is the result of "the goodness of GOD" - not the goodness of the repenting sinner.

This is why...

John 6:44 NO MAN can come to Me EXCEPT the Father draw [G1670 - helkuo, drag] him.

Like it, or not - this is what Scripture dictates.

If Jesus' mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, the only way they would have repented is still totally dependent upon the goodness of God leading them to repentance and dragging them to Christ.

You just read it yourself above.

Jesus does not contradict His Own statements of Scripture.

Jas 1:17 EVERY good gift and EVERY perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with Whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.

Repentance does not originate with man... it comes from God.

And what about Sodom?

Sodom did not see Jesus' mighty works and Sodom did not repent.  Sodom also was brought "down to hell [hades]" and Sodom was not alone in that ancient destruction.  It also included Gomorrah, all "the cities of the plain" (Gen 19:28-29).

Jesus could have caused Tyre and Sidon to repent.

Jesus could have saved them; and they too could have remained until this day, but Jesus didn't want to save them at that time.

All Jesus would have had to do was the same "mighty works" in Tyre and Sidon as He did in Capernaum, Chorazin, and Bethsaida, and they "would have repented long ago".

Yes, Chorazin, Behtsaida, Tyre, Sidon, Sodom, and Gomorrah will all give "account" one day for their sins.

Who is "responsible" for their repentance AND their salvation?

Jesus Himself - He said as much in these verses above.

These verses prove that God can bring anyone to repentance when He so desires. (Again... remember my previous blogs and what He did with Paul?)

Not only would Tyre and Sidon have repented as a result of Jesus' mighty works, but something remarkable would have happened to Sodom had they this same opportunity.

"for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee [Capernaum], had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day."

Jesus is not suggesting that Sodom had any such ability as to change the carnality of their entire city.

He is showing that God could have taken a different course of action with Sodom had He so desired, and could have caused it to "remain until this day".
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So what is the point of all this, and what does it have to do with the "eternal hell of torture" taught by the Christian Church?

Would any deny that God is NOT A LIAR?

Can we then take Him at His word when He declares through Peter:

2 Pet 3:9  The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness; but is long-suffering [patient] to us-ward [toward us], NOT WILLING that ANY should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance.

Don't confuse the statement above... don't think to yourself that it reads:

"God doesn't desire any to perish, but unfortunately man can still go against His will and perish of his own desires..."

You can take this to the bank... if God is "NOT willing", His will is going to be accomplished above ALL!

If He is "not willing that any perish" - NONE WILL PERISH!

Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning [speaking of God], and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel SHALL stand, and I WILL DO all My pleasure:

Php 2:13 For it is GOD which works in you both to will AND to do of His good pleasure.

Mat 6:10 ... Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.

Rom 9:16 So then it is not of him that wills, nor of him that runs, but of God that shows mercy.

We've already discussed Paul... here's another example:

Did Pharaoh have his own "free will"?

Ex 9:12 ... the Lord hardened the heart of Pharaoh

God hardened his heart - Pharaoh had nothing to do with it. If Pharaoh were left to his own accord, he may very well have let God's people go without any prompting!

But no! God's will - not Pharaoh's will - was to be accomplished.

Rom 9:18 Therefore has He mercy on whom He will have mercy, and whom He will He hardens.

Rom 9:19 Thou will say then unto me, Why does He yet find fault? For who has resisted His will?

Answer: Nobody throughout history has, or ever will - resist His will.

Rom 8:20 For the creature [Gk: "creation'] was made [put under, subordinate to, to obey] subject to vanity [Gk: "futility'], NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him Who has subjected the same in hope.

"Well, then..." you may be asking... "What is God's will?"

1 Tim 2:4 God our Savior; Who WILL HAVE all men to be SAVED, and to come unto the knowledge of the Truth.

Don't even bother trying to wrestle with it... what does it say?!

We're going to get into the whole "free-will" discussion in another blog later, but for now... don't even dream of changing God's plans. You can't.
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Had God desired, if it were "God's will" for Sodom to repent and be saved so as to "have remained until this day," what was it that He would have had to do?

We don't have to guess because Jesus has already plainly told us what He would have had to do:

"If the mighty works, which have been done in you, had been done in Sodom..."

There's the simple answer:

Do the mighty works in Sodom that were done in Capernaum, and Sodom would have repented and "It would have remained until this day."

But as Isaiah said (Isa 53:1) and Paul repeated (Rom 10:16): "Who has believed our report?".

Do you? Do you believe these words of our Lord, or are you like the Christian orthodox church which believes it is all predicated upon man's phantom "free will" which can thwart the will of God any time it desires?

Is not an entire city, not to mention neighboring Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plain, including all the teens, youngsters, mentally challenged, pregnant women, grandmothers and grandfathers, great grandmothers and great grandfathers, and little babies, worth a few "mighty works" on God's part?

Orthodox Christianity teaches that Sodom is suffering the fires of an eternal hell RIGHT NOW.

If you don't believe that, go and ask your minister or pastor where the citizens of Sodom are RIGHT NOW?

The Bible teaches, however, that all the citizens of Sodom are DEAD and they are suffering NOTHING right now.

Let's suppose that Sodom really is presently suffering consciously in an eternal hell of fire.

According to Jesus, was there a way that they could have escaped such a fate?

Yes - there was. Jesus said there was a way.

"If the mighty works, which have been done in you [Capernaum] , had been done in Sodom...

...it would have remained until this day."

Did Jesus say that Sodom could have saved themselves and remained until this day if they so desired, or...

... did He say that had HIS mighty works been done in Sodom it "would have" remained until this day?

If it is Jesus Who is responsible for the salvation of Sodom, then it is Jesus Who is also responsible for the salvation of ALL cities and ALL humanity, for "God is no respecter of persons" (Acts 10:34) and "He is NOT WILLING that ANY perish".
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Orthodox Christian theologians, pastors, teachers and lay people mostly agree that the wicked sinners of Sodom are presently alive and suffering in hell and that they have suffered there for nearly 4,000 years and will continue to suffer in this hell-hole for all eternity.

What would it have taken to prevent such a monstrous and horrific insane destiny?

According to our Lord it would only taken some of His "mighty works" - that's all.

Are those people of Sodom and all the cities of the plains not worth a few "mighty works" of our Lord?

Ask your pastor to explain this blog, and these Scriptures to you according to the Christian eternal hell doctrine.

Jesus did not say that had such mighty works been done in Sodom, then they would have had a "chance" to repent, be saved, and "remain until this day".

NO!

Jesus said that "It WOULD HAVE remained until this day".

Who are you going to believe?

This evil and blasphemous eternal hell doctrine of the church, or Jesus' very own words?

Does Jesus indicate that Sodom has been suffering in hell since their destruction way back there in Genesis 19?

NO!

Mat 11:24 But I [Jesus] say unto you, That it shall be MORE tolerable for the land of Sodom IN THE DAY OF JUDGMENT, than for you.

What?!

If Sodom has been tortured in the living fires of hell for the past nearly four thousand years, why must they wait for "judgment" to receive "more tolerance"?

How is it that they have apparently ALREADY been judged to suffer eternally in hell? The Great White Throne Judgment has not even occurred yet.

What kind of tolerance is that?

And how can there be a "more tolerable" condition for Sodom, the city that personifies all that is wicked and perverted?

The city that had NOT ONE righteous person in it except for Lot?

God is going to show "more tolerance" to Sodom in the day of judgment than to Capernaum where Jesus and Peter lived themselves?!

That's exactly what Jesus just said.

But what does that mean?

It means that if you have believed all such people as Sodom and Capernaum will be tortured (or annihilated) for all of eternity...

... then you have been LIED TO!

It's time you learn the Truth about this doctrine of demons parroted throughout the centuries by the Christian church.

And just how, can one be sentenced to eternal torture receive "more tolerance" than others?

If the sentence for all unrepentant sinners is eternity in hell, then this will include Sodom, Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plains, the entire population of the world at the time of Noah, Chorazin, Bethsadia, Tyre, Sidon, Capernaum, and the rest of the billions and billions of humanity which have never even heard the Name of Jesus down through the centuries.

How is one sentenced to eternal torture more tolerable than another sentence?

Does one group suffer in 3,000 degree fire instead of 30,000 degree fire?

I have read where Christians teach that the temperature of hell fire will not be measured in thousands of degrees, but in millions of degrees.

Sick, SICK, deranged, blasphemous carnal minds!

If Jesus was not pronouncing an eternity of suffering in a pagan place called hell on the peoples of Capernaum...

... what did He really mean when he said they would be "brought down to hell [hades]"?
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What hades IS and what hades IS NOT

So what does Christ's statement mean:

"Capernaum... shall be brought down to hell [hades]"?

Hades is a condition, state, mode, or realm, NOT a geographical location.

That Capernum was to be brought "down" to hades is used to describe a condition rather than a direction or a geographical location.

"Up" implies inspiration and life, whereas "down" implies woe and death.

Notice that Jesus first says of Capernaum - "which art exalted unto heaven"... Jesus is drawing a contrast here - Capernaum is currently "up" (exalted unto heaven) in their minds, but they will be brought "down"...

"shalt be brought down to hades".

Here are but two Scriptural examples which use figurative language with respect to going "down" to death.

Pro 5:5 Her feet go down to death; her steps take hold on hell [sheol].

Pro 7:27 ... going down to the chambers of death.

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We've already discussed in previous blogs how the Hebrew word sheol is an exact equivalent to the Greek word hades by inspiration.

Dr. Strong declares in his dictionary that part of their definition is:

Strong's Hebrew Dictionary, H7585 - sheol, hades or the world of the dead.

Surely the "world of the dead" cannot also be the Christian place of: eternal life, eternal judgment, torture in fire, hopelessness, memories of life, knowledge of past sins, intense screaming, pain, suffering, gnashing of teeth, etc.

Let's check Scripture to see if any of the above things are found in reference to sheol/hades:

Life?

No - "... the dead are there... in the depths of sheol" (Pro 9:18)

Remembrance?

No - "For in death there is no remembrance of thee: in sheol who shall give thee thanks?" (Pro 6:5)

Screaming?

No - "... let them be silent in sheol" (Psa 31:17)

Knowledge?

No - "... there is no knowledge in sheol..." (Ecc 9:10)

Hopelessness?

No - "... I will ransom them from sheol..." (Hos 13:14)

Damned forever?

No - "... God will redeem my soul from sheol..." (Psa 49:15)

Everlasting?

No -

"... hades delivered up the dead which were in them" (Rev 20:13)

"... O sheol, I will be thy destruction..." (Hos 13:14)

How is destruction accomplished?

Rev 20:14 And death and hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.

If hades is Christendom's "hell" - why will it be cast into the Lake of Fire (which they also consider to be hell) - The Second Death?

Look at everything you've just read from Scripture above... how can hades/sheol POSSIBLY fit Christendom's definition of hell?!

It can't!

Jesus was declaring to Capernaum and other cities which refused to obey His call to repentance, that they would be brought down to death individually, and collectively as great and exalted cities.

Which has happened - everyone in these cities has died and the cities themselves have died.

Now all that remains for them is their resurrection to judgment, in "the DAY OF JUDGMENT."

Act 17:31 Because He has appointed a day, in the which He will Judge THE WORLD in Righteousness by that Man [Jesus] whom He has ordained; whereof He HAS GIVEN assurance [G4102 - pistis] unto ALL men, in that He hath raised Him from the dead.

What does that word assurance mean?

G4102 - pistis, especially reliance upon Christ for salvation

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Part 11 - Jesus Second Occasion is next...

Some of these excerpts are from my personal notes copied from 30+ years of studying... some of these notes are direct copies of various sources - I do not claim to have authored every word of this... it's just a mass collection I've tucked away over the years for my own personal studies... I didn't consider a bibliography at the time I directly copied small excerpts from various authors. Also, any emphasis (underlines, bold text, all CAPS, etc.) noted above was only meant to capture my personal attention as I studied...

Whence Hell? - Part 13

Whence Hell? - Part 12

Whence Hell? - Part 11

Whence Hell? - Part 10

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