In each blog, I often reference many different topics that I've already covered (or will soon cover), and maybe you've missed. Please review my blogs to read more...
CLICK HERE! for an index to previous blogs.
___________________________
hades - Jesus First Occasion
Below is the first occasion of Jesus mentioning hades...
[1] "Capernaum... brought down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Mat 11:23)
... same occasion as recorded by Luke:
"Capernaum... thrust down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Luk 10:15)
Full context:
Mat 11:20-24 Then began He [Jesus] to upbraid the cities wherein most of His mighty works were done, because they repented not: [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] For if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you.
And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell [G86 - hades]: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.
And full context of Luke:
Luk 10:13-15 [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes. But it shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the judgment, than for you. And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted to heaven, shalt be thrust down to hell [G86 - hades].
The problems associated with trying to force this declaration of Jesus regarding Capernaum into the idea that Capernaum would be cast into the pagan hell of the ancient Greeks (and modern-day Christendom) to be tortured for all eternity are many.
I'm going to get to what Jesus is Truly speaking soon, but first... some thoughts on questions you should be asking yourself concerning these few short passages.
What is Jesus trying to tell us?
I guarantee you, Jesus is not just giving us a short history lesson... He's teaching us a far more valuable lesson.
____________________
Thoughts to Ponder
Note that Jesus speaks not only of Capernaum, but also Chorazin, and Bethsaida, Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom.
What did Jesus say regarding these cities?
[1] Jesus first pronounces a "woe" on Chorazin and Bethsaida because they saw Jesus' mighty works but they didn't repent.
[2] He then states that if the same works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, "they would have repented long ago".
Why would they have repented long ago?
Chorazin and Bethsaida saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.
Capernaum saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.
Why would Tyre and Sidon have repented?
Were all the people of Tyre and Sidon and even Sodom, just inherently better and more tender-hearted people that they would have, on their own, repented after witnessing such mighty works by Jesus?
Was the entire population of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum so evil and hard-hearted that the mighty works of Jesus did not effect them at all?
Are we to assume that 100 percent of all the men, women, and children of Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom would be fully capable and willing to repent in the presence of Jesus' mighty works, but that 100 percent of the men, women, and children of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum are totally incapable and unwilling to repent in the presence of these mighty works?
Don't let any suggest that Jesus was not speaking of and including women and children and infants in His statements.
Notice that Jesus brings Sodom into this picture, and we are well aware of the facts surrounding ALL men, ALL women, ALL children, and ALL infants that were destroyed in Sodom and Gomorrah, AND all the cities of the plain.
There is only one Scriptural way that any city, family, or individual is able to come to Jesus Christ in repentance:
"the goodness of God LEADS YOU to repentance" (Rom 2:4).
Are we so totally blind to the Word of God as to believe that Tyre and Sidon could have repented on their own free will?
Repentance is the result of "the goodness of GOD" - not the goodness of the repenting sinner.
This is why...
John 6:44 NO MAN can come to Me EXCEPT the Father draw [G1670 - helkuo, drag] him.
Like it, or not - this is what Scripture dictates.
If Jesus' mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, the only way they would have repented is still totally dependent upon the goodness of God leading them to repentance and dragging them to Christ.
You just read it yourself above.
Jesus does not contradict His Own statements of Scripture.
Jas 1:17 EVERY good gift and EVERY perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with Whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.
Repentance does not originate with man... it comes from God.
And what about Sodom?
Sodom did not see Jesus' mighty works and Sodom did not repent. Sodom also was brought "down to hell [hades]" and Sodom was not alone in that ancient destruction. It also included Gomorrah, all "the cities of the plain" (Gen 19:28-29).
Jesus could have caused Tyre and Sidon to repent.
Jesus could have saved them; and they too could have remained until this day, but Jesus didn't want to save them at that time.
All Jesus would have had to do was the same "mighty works" in Tyre and Sidon as He did in Capernaum, Chorazin, and Bethsaida, and they "would have repented long ago".
Yes, Chorazin, Behtsaida, Tyre, Sidon, Sodom, and Gomorrah will all give "account" one day for their sins.
Who is "responsible" for their repentance AND their salvation?
Jesus Himself - He said as much in these verses above.
These verses prove that God can bring anyone to repentance when He so desires. (Again... remember my previous blogs and what He did with Paul?)
Not only would Tyre and Sidon have repented as a result of Jesus' mighty works, but something remarkable would have happened to Sodom had they this same opportunity.
"for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee [Capernaum], had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day."
Jesus is not suggesting that Sodom had any such ability as to change the carnality of their entire city.
He is showing that God could have taken a different course of action with Sodom had He so desired, and could have caused it to "remain until this day".
_______________________________
So what is the point of all this, and what does it have to do with the "eternal hell of torture" taught by the Christian Church?
Would any deny that God is NOT A LIAR?
Can we then take Him at His word when He declares through Peter:
2 Pet 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness; but is long-suffering [patient] to us-ward [toward us], NOT WILLING that ANY should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance.
Don't confuse the statement above... don't think to yourself that it reads:
"God doesn't desire any to perish, but unfortunately man can still go against His will and perish of his own desires..."
You can take this to the bank... if God is "NOT willing", His will is going to be accomplished above ALL!
If He is "not willing that any perish" - NONE WILL PERISH!
Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning [speaking of God], and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel SHALL stand, and I WILL DO all My pleasure:
Php 2:13 For it is GOD which works in you both to will AND to do of His good pleasure.
Mat 6:10 ... Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
Rom 9:16 So then it is not of him that wills, nor of him that runs, but of God that shows mercy.
We've already discussed Paul... here's another example:
Did Pharaoh have his own "free will"?
Ex 9:12 ... the Lord hardened the heart of Pharaoh
God hardened his heart - Pharaoh had nothing to do with it. If Pharaoh were left to his own accord, he may very well have let God's people go without any prompting!
But no! God's will - not Pharaoh's will - was to be accomplished.
Rom 9:18 Therefore has He mercy on whom He will have mercy, and whom He will He hardens.
Rom 9:19 Thou will say then unto me, Why does He yet find fault? For who has resisted His will?
Answer: Nobody throughout history has, or ever will - resist His will.
Rom 8:20 For the creature [Gk: "creation'] was made [put under, subordinate to, to obey] subject to vanity [Gk: "futility'], NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him Who has subjected the same in hope.
"Well, then..." you may be asking... "What is God's will?"
1 Tim 2:4 God our Savior; Who WILL HAVE all men to be SAVED, and to come unto the knowledge of the Truth.
Don't even bother trying to wrestle with it... what does it say?!
We're going to get into the whole "free-will" discussion in another blog later, but for now... don't even dream of changing God's plans. You can't.
____________________________
Had God desired, if it were "God's will" for Sodom to repent and be saved so as to "have remained until this day," what was it that He would have had to do?
We don't have to guess because Jesus has already plainly told us what He would have had to do:
"If the mighty works, which have been done in you, had been done in Sodom..."
There's the simple answer:
Do the mighty works in Sodom that were done in Capernaum, and Sodom would have repented and "It would have remained until this day."
But as Isaiah said (Isa 53:1) and Paul repeated (Rom 10:16): "Who has believed our report?".
Do you? Do you believe these words of our Lord, or are you like the Christian orthodox church which believes it is all predicated upon man's phantom "free will" which can thwart the will of God any time it desires?
Is not an entire city, not to mention neighboring Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plain, including all the teens, youngsters, mentally challenged, pregnant women, grandmothers and grandfathers, great grandmothers and great grandfathers, and little babies, worth a few "mighty works" on God's part?
Orthodox Christianity teaches that Sodom is suffering the fires of an eternal hell RIGHT NOW.
If you don't believe that, go and ask your minister or pastor where the citizens of Sodom are RIGHT NOW?
The Bible teaches, however, that all the citizens of Sodom are DEAD and they are suffering NOTHING right now.
Let's suppose that Sodom really is presently suffering consciously in an eternal hell of fire.
According to Jesus, was there a way that they could have escaped such a fate?
Yes - there was. Jesus said there was a way.
"If the mighty works, which have been done in you [Capernaum] , had been done in Sodom...
...it would have remained until this day."
Did Jesus say that Sodom could have saved themselves and remained until this day if they so desired, or...
... did He say that had HIS mighty works been done in Sodom it "would have" remained until this day?
If it is Jesus Who is responsible for the salvation of Sodom, then it is Jesus Who is also responsible for the salvation of ALL cities and ALL humanity, for "God is no respecter of persons" (Acts 10:34) and "He is NOT WILLING that ANY perish".
______________________
Orthodox Christian theologians, pastors, teachers and lay people mostly agree that the wicked sinners of Sodom are presently alive and suffering in hell and that they have suffered there for nearly 4,000 years and will continue to suffer in this hell-hole for all eternity.
What would it have taken to prevent such a monstrous and horrific insane destiny?
According to our Lord it would only taken some of His "mighty works" - that's all.
Are those people of Sodom and all the cities of the plains not worth a few "mighty works" of our Lord?
Ask your pastor to explain this blog, and these Scriptures to you according to the Christian eternal hell doctrine.
Jesus did not say that had such mighty works been done in Sodom, then they would have had a "chance" to repent, be saved, and "remain until this day".
NO!
Jesus said that "It WOULD HAVE remained until this day".
Who are you going to believe?
This evil and blasphemous eternal hell doctrine of the church, or Jesus' very own words?
Does Jesus indicate that Sodom has been suffering in hell since their destruction way back there in Genesis 19?
NO!
Mat 11:24 But I [Jesus] say unto you, That it shall be MORE tolerable for the land of Sodom IN THE DAY OF JUDGMENT, than for you.
What?!
If Sodom has been tortured in the living fires of hell for the past nearly four thousand years, why must they wait for "judgment" to receive "more tolerance"?
How is it that they have apparently ALREADY been judged to suffer eternally in hell? The Great White Throne Judgment has not even occurred yet.
What kind of tolerance is that?
And how can there be a "more tolerable" condition for Sodom, the city that personifies all that is wicked and perverted?
The city that had NOT ONE righteous person in it except for Lot?
God is going to show "more tolerance" to Sodom in the day of judgment than to Capernaum where Jesus and Peter lived themselves?!
That's exactly what Jesus just said.
But what does that mean?
It means that if you have believed all such people as Sodom and Capernaum will be tortured (or annihilated) for all of eternity...
... then you have been LIED TO!
It's time you learn the Truth about this doctrine of demons parroted throughout the centuries by the Christian church.
And just how, can one be sentenced to eternal torture receive "more tolerance" than others?
If the sentence for all unrepentant sinners is eternity in hell, then this will include Sodom, Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plains, the entire population of the world at the time of Noah, Chorazin, Bethsadia, Tyre, Sidon, Capernaum, and the rest of the billions and billions of humanity which have never even heard the Name of Jesus down through the centuries.
How is one sentenced to eternal torture more tolerable than another sentence?
Does one group suffer in 3,000 degree fire instead of 30,000 degree fire?
I have read where Christians teach that the temperature of hell fire will not be measured in thousands of degrees, but in millions of degrees.
Sick, SICK, deranged, blasphemous carnal minds!
If Jesus was not pronouncing an eternity of suffering in a pagan place called hell on the peoples of Capernaum...
... what did He really mean when he said they would be "brought down to hell [hades]"?
_________________________
What hades IS and what hades IS NOT
So what does Christ's statement mean:
"Capernaum... shall be brought down to hell [hades]"?
That Capernum was to be brought "down" to hades is used to describe a condition rather than a direction or a geographical location.
"Up" implies inspiration and life, whereas "down" implies woe and death.
Here are but two Scriptural examples which use figurative language with respect to going "down" to death.
Pro 5:5 Her feet go down to death; her steps take hold on hell [sheol].
Pro 7:27 ... going down to the chambers of death.
We've already discussed in previous blogs how the Hebrew word sheol is an exact equivalent to the Greek word hades by inspiration.
Dr. Strong declares in his dictionary that part of their definition is:
Rev 20:14 And death and hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.
If hades is Christendom's "hell" - why will it be cast into the Lake of Fire (which they also consider to be hell) - The Second Death?
Look at everything you've just read from Scripture above... how can hades/sheol POSSIBLY fit Christendom's definition of hell?!
It can't!
Jesus was declaring to Capernaum and other cities which refused to obey His call to repentance, that they would be brought down to death individually, and collectively as great and exalted cities.
What does that word assurance mean?
G4102 - pistis, especially reliance upon Christ for salvation
_________________________
Part 11 - Jesus Second Occasion is next...
Some of these excerpts are from my personal notes copied from 30+ years of studying... some of these notes are direct copies of various sources - I do not claim to have authored every word of this... it's just a mass collection I've tucked away over the years for my own personal studies... I didn't consider a bibliography at the time I directly copied small excerpts from various authors. Also, any emphasis (underlines, bold text, all CAPS, etc.) noted above was only meant to capture my personal attention as I studied...
CLICK HERE! for an index to previous blogs.
___________________________
hades - Jesus First Occasion
Below is the first occasion of Jesus mentioning hades...
[1] "Capernaum... brought down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Mat 11:23)
... same occasion as recorded by Luke:
"Capernaum... thrust down to hell [G86 - hades; unseen]" (Luk 10:15)
Full context:
Mat 11:20-24 Then began He [Jesus] to upbraid the cities wherein most of His mighty works were done, because they repented not: [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] For if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you.
And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell [G86 - hades]: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.
And full context of Luke:
Luk 10:13-15 [1] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! [2] for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes. But it shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the judgment, than for you. And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted to heaven, shalt be thrust down to hell [G86 - hades].
The problems associated with trying to force this declaration of Jesus regarding Capernaum into the idea that Capernaum would be cast into the pagan hell of the ancient Greeks (and modern-day Christendom) to be tortured for all eternity are many.
I'm going to get to what Jesus is Truly speaking soon, but first... some thoughts on questions you should be asking yourself concerning these few short passages.
What is Jesus trying to tell us?
I guarantee you, Jesus is not just giving us a short history lesson... He's teaching us a far more valuable lesson.
____________________
Thoughts to Ponder
Note that Jesus speaks not only of Capernaum, but also Chorazin, and Bethsaida, Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom.
What did Jesus say regarding these cities?
[1] Jesus first pronounces a "woe" on Chorazin and Bethsaida because they saw Jesus' mighty works but they didn't repent.
[2] He then states that if the same works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, "they would have repented long ago".
Why would they have repented long ago?
Chorazin and Bethsaida saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.
Capernaum saw these mighty works and they didn't repent.
Why would Tyre and Sidon have repented?
Were all the people of Tyre and Sidon and even Sodom, just inherently better and more tender-hearted people that they would have, on their own, repented after witnessing such mighty works by Jesus?
Was the entire population of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum so evil and hard-hearted that the mighty works of Jesus did not effect them at all?
Are we to assume that 100 percent of all the men, women, and children of Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom would be fully capable and willing to repent in the presence of Jesus' mighty works, but that 100 percent of the men, women, and children of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum are totally incapable and unwilling to repent in the presence of these mighty works?
Don't let any suggest that Jesus was not speaking of and including women and children and infants in His statements.
Notice that Jesus brings Sodom into this picture, and we are well aware of the facts surrounding ALL men, ALL women, ALL children, and ALL infants that were destroyed in Sodom and Gomorrah, AND all the cities of the plain.
There is only one Scriptural way that any city, family, or individual is able to come to Jesus Christ in repentance:
"the goodness of God LEADS YOU to repentance" (Rom 2:4).
Are we so totally blind to the Word of God as to believe that Tyre and Sidon could have repented on their own free will?
Repentance is the result of "the goodness of GOD" - not the goodness of the repenting sinner.
This is why...
John 6:44 NO MAN can come to Me EXCEPT the Father draw [G1670 - helkuo, drag] him.
Like it, or not - this is what Scripture dictates.
If Jesus' mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, the only way they would have repented is still totally dependent upon the goodness of God leading them to repentance and dragging them to Christ.
You just read it yourself above.
Jesus does not contradict His Own statements of Scripture.
Jas 1:17 EVERY good gift and EVERY perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with Whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.
Repentance does not originate with man... it comes from God.
And what about Sodom?
Sodom did not see Jesus' mighty works and Sodom did not repent. Sodom also was brought "down to hell [hades]" and Sodom was not alone in that ancient destruction. It also included Gomorrah, all "the cities of the plain" (Gen 19:28-29).
Jesus could have caused Tyre and Sidon to repent.
Jesus could have saved them; and they too could have remained until this day, but Jesus didn't want to save them at that time.
All Jesus would have had to do was the same "mighty works" in Tyre and Sidon as He did in Capernaum, Chorazin, and Bethsaida, and they "would have repented long ago".
Yes, Chorazin, Behtsaida, Tyre, Sidon, Sodom, and Gomorrah will all give "account" one day for their sins.
Who is "responsible" for their repentance AND their salvation?
Jesus Himself - He said as much in these verses above.
These verses prove that God can bring anyone to repentance when He so desires. (Again... remember my previous blogs and what He did with Paul?)
Not only would Tyre and Sidon have repented as a result of Jesus' mighty works, but something remarkable would have happened to Sodom had they this same opportunity.
"for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee [Capernaum], had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day."
Jesus is not suggesting that Sodom had any such ability as to change the carnality of their entire city.
He is showing that God could have taken a different course of action with Sodom had He so desired, and could have caused it to "remain until this day".
_______________________________
So what is the point of all this, and what does it have to do with the "eternal hell of torture" taught by the Christian Church?
Would any deny that God is NOT A LIAR?
Can we then take Him at His word when He declares through Peter:
2 Pet 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness; but is long-suffering [patient] to us-ward [toward us], NOT WILLING that ANY should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance.
Don't confuse the statement above... don't think to yourself that it reads:
"God doesn't desire any to perish, but unfortunately man can still go against His will and perish of his own desires..."
You can take this to the bank... if God is "NOT willing", His will is going to be accomplished above ALL!
If He is "not willing that any perish" - NONE WILL PERISH!
Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning [speaking of God], and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel SHALL stand, and I WILL DO all My pleasure:
Php 2:13 For it is GOD which works in you both to will AND to do of His good pleasure.
Mat 6:10 ... Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
Rom 9:16 So then it is not of him that wills, nor of him that runs, but of God that shows mercy.
We've already discussed Paul... here's another example:
Did Pharaoh have his own "free will"?
Ex 9:12 ... the Lord hardened the heart of Pharaoh
God hardened his heart - Pharaoh had nothing to do with it. If Pharaoh were left to his own accord, he may very well have let God's people go without any prompting!
But no! God's will - not Pharaoh's will - was to be accomplished.
Rom 9:18 Therefore has He mercy on whom He will have mercy, and whom He will He hardens.
Rom 9:19 Thou will say then unto me, Why does He yet find fault? For who has resisted His will?
Answer: Nobody throughout history has, or ever will - resist His will.
Rom 8:20 For the creature [Gk: "creation'] was made [put under, subordinate to, to obey] subject to vanity [Gk: "futility'], NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him Who has subjected the same in hope.
"Well, then..." you may be asking... "What is God's will?"
1 Tim 2:4 God our Savior; Who WILL HAVE all men to be SAVED, and to come unto the knowledge of the Truth.
Don't even bother trying to wrestle with it... what does it say?!
We're going to get into the whole "free-will" discussion in another blog later, but for now... don't even dream of changing God's plans. You can't.
____________________________
Had God desired, if it were "God's will" for Sodom to repent and be saved so as to "have remained until this day," what was it that He would have had to do?
We don't have to guess because Jesus has already plainly told us what He would have had to do:
"If the mighty works, which have been done in you, had been done in Sodom..."
There's the simple answer:
Do the mighty works in Sodom that were done in Capernaum, and Sodom would have repented and "It would have remained until this day."
But as Isaiah said (Isa 53:1) and Paul repeated (Rom 10:16): "Who has believed our report?".
Do you? Do you believe these words of our Lord, or are you like the Christian orthodox church which believes it is all predicated upon man's phantom "free will" which can thwart the will of God any time it desires?
Is not an entire city, not to mention neighboring Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plain, including all the teens, youngsters, mentally challenged, pregnant women, grandmothers and grandfathers, great grandmothers and great grandfathers, and little babies, worth a few "mighty works" on God's part?
Orthodox Christianity teaches that Sodom is suffering the fires of an eternal hell RIGHT NOW.
If you don't believe that, go and ask your minister or pastor where the citizens of Sodom are RIGHT NOW?
The Bible teaches, however, that all the citizens of Sodom are DEAD and they are suffering NOTHING right now.
Let's suppose that Sodom really is presently suffering consciously in an eternal hell of fire.
According to Jesus, was there a way that they could have escaped such a fate?
Yes - there was. Jesus said there was a way.
"If the mighty works, which have been done in you [Capernaum] , had been done in Sodom...
...it would have remained until this day."
Did Jesus say that Sodom could have saved themselves and remained until this day if they so desired, or...
... did He say that had HIS mighty works been done in Sodom it "would have" remained until this day?
If it is Jesus Who is responsible for the salvation of Sodom, then it is Jesus Who is also responsible for the salvation of ALL cities and ALL humanity, for "God is no respecter of persons" (Acts 10:34) and "He is NOT WILLING that ANY perish".
______________________
Orthodox Christian theologians, pastors, teachers and lay people mostly agree that the wicked sinners of Sodom are presently alive and suffering in hell and that they have suffered there for nearly 4,000 years and will continue to suffer in this hell-hole for all eternity.
What would it have taken to prevent such a monstrous and horrific insane destiny?
According to our Lord it would only taken some of His "mighty works" - that's all.
Are those people of Sodom and all the cities of the plains not worth a few "mighty works" of our Lord?
Ask your pastor to explain this blog, and these Scriptures to you according to the Christian eternal hell doctrine.
Jesus did not say that had such mighty works been done in Sodom, then they would have had a "chance" to repent, be saved, and "remain until this day".
NO!
Jesus said that "It WOULD HAVE remained until this day".
Who are you going to believe?
This evil and blasphemous eternal hell doctrine of the church, or Jesus' very own words?
Does Jesus indicate that Sodom has been suffering in hell since their destruction way back there in Genesis 19?
NO!
Mat 11:24 But I [Jesus] say unto you, That it shall be MORE tolerable for the land of Sodom IN THE DAY OF JUDGMENT, than for you.
What?!
If Sodom has been tortured in the living fires of hell for the past nearly four thousand years, why must they wait for "judgment" to receive "more tolerance"?
How is it that they have apparently ALREADY been judged to suffer eternally in hell? The Great White Throne Judgment has not even occurred yet.
What kind of tolerance is that?
And how can there be a "more tolerable" condition for Sodom, the city that personifies all that is wicked and perverted?
The city that had NOT ONE righteous person in it except for Lot?
God is going to show "more tolerance" to Sodom in the day of judgment than to Capernaum where Jesus and Peter lived themselves?!
That's exactly what Jesus just said.
But what does that mean?
It means that if you have believed all such people as Sodom and Capernaum will be tortured (or annihilated) for all of eternity...
... then you have been LIED TO!
It's time you learn the Truth about this doctrine of demons parroted throughout the centuries by the Christian church.
And just how, can one be sentenced to eternal torture receive "more tolerance" than others?
If the sentence for all unrepentant sinners is eternity in hell, then this will include Sodom, Gomorrah, and all the cities of the plains, the entire population of the world at the time of Noah, Chorazin, Bethsadia, Tyre, Sidon, Capernaum, and the rest of the billions and billions of humanity which have never even heard the Name of Jesus down through the centuries.
How is one sentenced to eternal torture more tolerable than another sentence?
Does one group suffer in 3,000 degree fire instead of 30,000 degree fire?
I have read where Christians teach that the temperature of hell fire will not be measured in thousands of degrees, but in millions of degrees.
Sick, SICK, deranged, blasphemous carnal minds!
If Jesus was not pronouncing an eternity of suffering in a pagan place called hell on the peoples of Capernaum...
... what did He really mean when he said they would be "brought down to hell [hades]"?
_________________________
What hades IS and what hades IS NOT
So what does Christ's statement mean:
"Capernaum... shall be brought down to hell [hades]"?
Hades is a condition, state, mode, or realm, NOT a geographical location.
That Capernum was to be brought "down" to hades is used to describe a condition rather than a direction or a geographical location.
"Up" implies inspiration and life, whereas "down" implies woe and death.
Notice that Jesus first says of Capernaum - "which art exalted unto heaven"... Jesus is drawing a contrast here - Capernaum is currently "up" (exalted unto heaven) in their minds, but they will be brought "down"...
"shalt be brought down to hades".
Here are but two Scriptural examples which use figurative language with respect to going "down" to death.
Pro 5:5 Her feet go down to death; her steps take hold on hell [sheol].
Pro 7:27 ... going down to the chambers of death.
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We've already discussed in previous blogs how the Hebrew word sheol is an exact equivalent to the Greek word hades by inspiration.
Dr. Strong declares in his dictionary that part of their definition is:
Strong's Hebrew Dictionary, H7585 - sheol, hades or the world of the dead.
Surely the "world of the dead" cannot also be the Christian place of: eternal life, eternal judgment, torture in fire, hopelessness, memories of life, knowledge of past sins, intense screaming, pain, suffering, gnashing of teeth, etc.
Let's check Scripture to see if any of the above things are found in reference to sheol/hades:
Life?
Let's check Scripture to see if any of the above things are found in reference to sheol/hades:
Life?
No - "... the dead are there... in the depths of sheol" (Pro 9:18)
Remembrance?
Remembrance?
No - "For in death there is no remembrance of thee: in sheol who shall give thee thanks?" (Pro 6:5)
Screaming?
No - "... let them be silent in sheol" (Psa 31:17)
Knowledge?
No - "... there is no knowledge in sheol..." (Ecc 9:10)
Hopelessness?
No - "... I will ransom them from sheol..." (Hos 13:14)
Damned forever?
No - "... God will redeem my soul from sheol..." (Psa 49:15)
Everlasting?
No -
"... hades delivered up the dead which were in them" (Rev 20:13)
"... O sheol, I will be thy destruction..." (Hos 13:14)
How is destruction accomplished?
If hades is Christendom's "hell" - why will it be cast into the Lake of Fire (which they also consider to be hell) - The Second Death?
Look at everything you've just read from Scripture above... how can hades/sheol POSSIBLY fit Christendom's definition of hell?!
It can't!
Jesus was declaring to Capernaum and other cities which refused to obey His call to repentance, that they would be brought down to death individually, and collectively as great and exalted cities.
Which has happened - everyone in these cities has died and the cities themselves have died.
Now all that remains for them is their resurrection to judgment, in "the DAY OF JUDGMENT."
Act 17:31 Because He has appointed a day, in the which He will Judge THE WORLD in Righteousness by that Man [Jesus] whom He has ordained; whereof He HAS GIVEN assurance [G4102 - pistis] unto ALL men, in that He hath raised Him from the dead.
Act 17:31 Because He has appointed a day, in the which He will Judge THE WORLD in Righteousness by that Man [Jesus] whom He has ordained; whereof He HAS GIVEN assurance [G4102 - pistis] unto ALL men, in that He hath raised Him from the dead.
What does that word assurance mean?
G4102 - pistis, especially reliance upon Christ for salvation
Part 11 - Jesus Second Occasion is next...
Some of these excerpts are from my personal notes copied from 30+ years of studying... some of these notes are direct copies of various sources - I do not claim to have authored every word of this... it's just a mass collection I've tucked away over the years for my own personal studies... I didn't consider a bibliography at the time I directly copied small excerpts from various authors. Also, any emphasis (underlines, bold text, all CAPS, etc.) noted above was only meant to capture my personal attention as I studied...
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